22 Aug 04
Originally posted by TheMaster37-IF such a function exists it has to be a polynomial to get rational output with rational input.
Suspicions to be proven:
Well, any ratio of two polynomials gives rational output with rational inpur (eg (x^3-9)/(x^2+3)). This doesn't necessarily give irrational output with irrationals, and the denominator may not have real roots.
-Polynomials aren't irrational with every irrational input (eg there is always an irrational input wich given rational output)
This is true. Note that irrational numbers can be associated with the degree of the lowest-degree polynomial of which they are a root. Are all irrationals roots of some polynomial?
22 Aug 04
1 edit
To the last question i know the answer immedeately. Some irrationals are no root of any FINITE polynomial, actually there are more numbers wich aren't 🙂
-IF such a function exists it has to be a polynomial to get rational output with rational input.
I change this to something that excludes nasty functions like exponentials and logarithms and such 😀 "Expressable by a polynomial or a quotient of two polinomials, and the quotient/sum of things made in that fashion, as long as it's finite" lol
