21 Mar 05
Originally posted by DarfiusYour notion of objective is mistaken, as is your understanding of how it contrasts with subjective.
Each individual? Come on, you know that's the definition of subjective. Don't play words games with a Literary Studies major. 😉
If I claim "2 + 2 = 5", I have made an objective claim.
If I claim "2 + 2 is equal to a big number", I have made a subjective claim.
Similarly, each man can assert an objective moral law. The inconsistency between men's laws does not make them subjective, for all can evaluate the actions of any one man with respect to any one law and come to the same conclusion about whether he has violated that law.
Consult a dictionary.
Dr. S
21 Mar 05
Originally posted by DarfiusAnd you have'nt proven they can't. Your point?
I'm not talking about illusions. I'm asking if objective moral laws can exist without God being the foundation for them. So far, you two haven't proven they can.
There are many here who do not believe in God, yet they have objective moral standards. I think the very presence of these individuals proves this point.
21 Mar 05
Originally posted by NyxieSo the product proves the process? Uhh...
And you have'nt proven they can't. Your point?
There are many here who do not believe in God, yet they have objective moral standards. I think the very presence of these individuals proves this point.
Christians claim God has set objective right and wrong in our hearts. That's my claim and it makes a lot more sense than individuals coincidentally coming upon the same 'objective' moral laws.