originally posted by twhitehead
Why is it not in context and what do you even mean by not in context?
The writer determines or establishes the context. Since you are using a context different from the writer's intention, you've spent 24 pages arguing against a strawman you've built.
If we don't know the meaning for a word, we start by looking it up in a dictionary. I would answer your second question by cut-and-paste from a dictionary entry. Many words have multiple entries. The correct entry is determined by the context in the material from which we found the unknown word.
Here's a little tutorial to help you learn this new skill:
http://www.studyzone.org/testprep/ela4/g/dictionarywordmeaningl.cfm
Here's a little test to help you practice this new skill you are learning:
https://www.superteacherworksheets.com/dictionary-skills/dictionary-skills-multiple-definitions.pdf
General usage of the word typically includes the post abuse state in which behaviour no-longer occurs. But even if we grant you all three aspects and call someone who has successfully stopped abusing a 'former addict', ...
If an addict stops using, she's a former addict now, that is correct.
...this still doesn't make addiction any less of a disease ...
That's true too. What makes an addiction not a disease is that addiction is not a disease according to the definition found in a site you linked to!
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disease
There are four main types of disease: infectious diseases, deficiency diseases, genetic diseases both (hereditary and non-hereditary), and physiological diseases.
That definition agrees with the context of the op.
Addiction is a psychological disorder as opposed to being a physiological disease.
I've shown you that addiction is
not on the list of diseases according to the cdc. Here you can see that addiction
is on the list of psychological disorders (aka mental disorders):
https://www.verywell.com/a-list-of-psychological-disorders-
2794776?utm_term=treatment+for+psychological+disorders&utm_content=p1-main-2-
title&utm_medium=sem&utm_source=msn_s&utm_campaign=adid-4d2fee40-9f45-4d73-
b1bb-f62625ff2f19-0-ab_msb_ocode-34458&ad=semD&an=msn_s&am=broad&
q=treatment+for+psychological+disorders&o=34458&qsrc=999&l=sem&
askid=4d2fee40-9f45-4d73-b1bb-f62625ff2f19-0-ab_msb
Mental disorders are not medical diseases:
http://www.cchr.org/quick-facts/real-disease-vs-mental-disorder.html
...nor does it make addiction a choice
Using is a choice. Abusing is a choice. Make the right choice and there is no addiction. I agree no one says hey I choose to be addicted. But the addiction is a result of our choices as opposed to being the result of a medical disease.
They are both physiological and psychological.
There are both physiological and psychological changes associated with taxi-driving too. That's not enough to elevate it to the level of 'physiological disease'. The category of 'phsiological disease'
excludes mental disorders.
So given that you refuse to accept the word 'addiction' for 'urges', what would you call someone who has stopped abusing but still feels urges to abuse?
Do you accept that such urges exist?
Actually, I refuse to accept the word 'compulsion' ( not 'addiction' ) for 'urges'. Of course such urges exist. But if a person isn't using, then they are not addicted.
There is a difference, btw, between using, abusing, and addiction. Some abusers are not addicted for example.