Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Less complaint, more observation. 🙂

🙂 Still a valid question.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Less complaint, more observation. 🙂

"12 And there came a writing to him from Elijah the prophet, saying,..."

"There came a writing to him from Elijah the prophet", sounds to me like someone had
a writing of Elijah and it came to him, it doesn't mean that Elijah wrote it specifically to him.
It could have, also said there came to him a writing from Moses, saying...that would not
mean that Moses came back from the dead to write him, only that the writing was from
Moses.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Do the pens in heaven have everlasting ink?

😞

Ok .. good try but that was not very funny.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Well, the biblical passage refers to him as 'Elijah the prophet' so i think it highly likely we are talking about the same guy.

And I don't see how it could have been written in advance when he speaks of things that haven't happen yet in a past tense. (Even if he was a prophet).

I think what happened to Enoch has some similarities. There are people that God like and favours, and these people get special attention. They get taken on journeys through the heavens and are shown things which ordinary people are not privy to. Paul is another such case. I think several of the prophets also had similar experiences and wrote about them but these writings were excluded from the KJV. Who knows how many other thousands of people had these experiences. The Bible does not record every such story.

The point is that in Enoch's case, he seems to have passed on his knowledge after he was taken by God, because his descendants were able to write about it hence the Book of Enoch, which got included in several versions of the Bible of the early church.

After God takes someone that does not necessarily exclude communication with earthlings.

Originally posted by Rajk999
Ok .. good try but that was not very funny.

Hence the depressed looking emoticon.

Originally posted by KellyJay
"12 And there came a writing to him from Elijah the prophet, saying,..."

"There came a writing to him from Elijah the prophet", sounds to me like someone had
a writing of Elijah and it came to him, it doesn't mean that Elijah wrote it specifically to him.
It could have, also said there came to him a writing from Moses, saying...that would not
mean that Moses came back from the dead to write him, only that the writing was from
Moses.

'Jehoram received a letter from Elijah the prophet.'


I think it is quite clear in the above translation that the letter came directly to Jehoram from Elijah. (Not that it was passed on by an intermediary some years later).

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
'Jehoram received a letter from Elijah the prophet.'


I think it is quite clear in the above translation that the letter came directly to Jehoram from Elijah. (Not that it was passed on by an intermediary some years later).

We disagree

Originally posted by KellyJay
We disagree

Indeed.

I am left wondering though sir why you would seek to dismiss so readily the most likely interpretation. (Elijah sent a letter).

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
Indeed.

I am left wondering though sir why you would seek to dismiss so readily the most likely interpretation. (Elijah sent a letter).

Acknowledging the author does not mean that the author sent it.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
2 Kings 2:1 tells us quite clearly that Elijah was taken up by a whirlwind into heaven. Why is it then that some 900 years later we have Jesus telling us, "no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven..." (John 3:13).

How is this not a biblical contradiction? (I will casually shrug off the '3 heavens' argument).

You do like to play a kind of theological "Stump the Chumps," don't you ?

Originally posted by sonship
You do[ like to play a kind of theological "Stump the Chumps," don't you ?

As stumped as he may have rendered you from time to time, Ghost of a Duke has never actually called you a chump.

Originally posted by KellyJay
Acknowledging the author does not mean that the author sent it.

In the same way that acknowledging God does not mean he wrote the bible?

Originally posted by sonship
You do like to play a kind of theological "Stump the Chumps," don't you ?

You have requested (more than once) that non-believers give you their best 'biblical contradictions' for you to dispel.

Your lack of attempt to dispel this current contradiction regarding Elijah does seem to suggest you are theologically stumped.

Originally posted by Ghost of a Duke
In the same way that acknowledging God does not mean he wrote the bible?

Man wrote the Bible, its the Word of God because they were men who met God.

Originally posted by KellyJay
Man wrote the Bible, its the Word of God because they were men who met God.

Come on old chap, even taking for example the book of Isaiah, it is commonly accepted (even among theist scholars) that there were multiple authors involved in its writing. - Is your position that all these authors 'met God?'