Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Oh dear so you cannot tell us why a person should be coerced to forsake their religious convictions and the natural exercise of the conscience simply because its in connection with a business, thankyou. Your opinion that its not a first amendment issue is simply untrue as it most certainly is a first amendment issue which guarantees the right of reli ...[text shortened]... l practice is not a racial issue and your attempts to make it synonymous with one are ludicrous.
The particular religious expression you wish to protect is hatred of gays. You've expressed it many times on this forum so pretending otherwise is disingenuous.
Of course, the expression of hatred for gays is protected whether religious or not. But you've made no case for why States should not be able to ban discrimination in commercial transactions. Commerce is a societal regulated activity and non-discrimination against consumers has been a feature of Anglo-Saxon law since before the creation of the US. Inns, for example, had to admit any traveler able to pay.
You claimed an absolute exemption from any law if a supposed religious belief makes you not wish to comply with it. The analogy based on certain Southerner's beliefs on the religious justification on slavery was on point. I'm not surprised you wish to ignore it as it makes your all-encompassing claim look a bit foolish.
Can I own slaves in the US, notwithstanding the 13th Amendment, if I have a sincere religious belief that the ownership of slaves is justified by my religion? Yes or no?
EDIT: Under your absolute test above, could followers of the old Atzec religion perform human sacrifices in 2015?