Originally posted by HomerJSimpson
f5+? do you mean rd3+? well after that i really dont see an advantage so I probably wouldnt
no, no...
the prevouis moves were f5+, then black played Kd5...
the puzzle was to work out what whites 42nd move should be....
the game continued.....
41. f5+ Kd5....
42. Rd3+ Ke5 43. Rxd6 Kxd6 44. Kh5 Ke5
45. Kg6 a5 46. b3 Kd4 47. Kxf6 Kc3 48. Ke7 Kxb3 49. f6 Kxa3 50. f7 b4 51.
f8=Q a4 52. Ke6 Kb3 53. Kd5 a3 54. Qf3+ Ka2 55. Kc4 Kb1 56. Qd1+ Kb2 57. Kxb4
a2 58. Qd2+ Kb1 59. Qd1+ Kb2 60. Qb3+ Ka1 61. Qc3+ Kb1 62. Qe1+ Kb2 63. Qd2+
Kb1 64. Kb3 a1=N+ 65. Ka3 Nb3 66. Qb2# 1-0
The point is, the trading down WON white a pawn, and thats something you should always be wary of...after trading down, will i still have the avantage/equality-- in this instance, black was wrong.