Originally posted by FabianFnas I've seen people knowing how to work with calculators, producing approximations. But noone yet producing an answer. Isn't there any?
Let me try to "show" there probably isn't:
arctan(x) = 1/(2x)
tan(arctan(x) = tan(1/(2x))
x = tan(1/(2x))
From Lindemann-Weierstrass we know that the tangent of any non-zero algebraic number is transcendental, so if x was algebraic then 1/2x is algebraic and therefore tan(1/(2x))=x should be transcendental, so we get a contradiction.
x must then be transcendental and we can easily check that it's not a multiple of Pi.
Originally posted by Palynka Let me try to "show" there probably isn't:
arctan(x) = 1/(2x)
tan(arctan(x) = tan(1/(2x))
x = tan(1/(2x))
From Lindemann-Weierstrass we know that the tangent of any non-zero algebraic number is transcendental, so if x was algebraic then 1/2x is algebraic and therefore tan(1/(2x))=x should be transcendental, so we get a contradiction.
x must then be transcendental and we can easily check that it's not a multiple of Pi.
Good explanation!
So to find the solution of the problem, numerical methods can be our only tool? An approximation can be the only answer?