Originally posted by ilywrin Well, how else could the Black bishop have gotten to a1?
Another piece could have captured on b2 (no reason it has to be a Bishop), or White could simply move the b-pawn. It could then be taken later by any black piece, or sacrificed on c4 instead of the a-pawn.
Originally posted by crazyblue But then there wouldn't be enough pieces for the black g-pawn to get to b2 (and from there promote to a1 to a bishop), wasnt it that?
Ba1 isn't a promoted Bishop. The last move was ...b1Q#.
lol, then I'd have to credit several people who got the right last move with wrong or incomplete reasoning. Unfortunately, the problem is a bit weak in forcing the solver to 'prove it'.
Since the White king is in check , Black's move was probably taking on g3 so it must be fxg3+ or hxg3+ , g3 is not possible becuase the pawn would occupy the king's square.
Since the White king is in check , Black's move was probably taking on g3 so it must be fxg3+ or hxg3+ , g3 is not possible becuase the pawn would occupy the king's square.
Originally posted by SicilianNajdorf Since the White king is in check , Black's move was probably taking on g3 so it must be fxg3+ or hxg3+ , g3 is not possible becuase the pawn would occupy the king's square.
It is possible to prove where the black pawn came from and what type of piece it captured.