27 Oct '06 22:18>1 edit
Originally posted by BigDoggProblemThat's fair enough. No problems. So then 2. 0-0-0 is perfectly allowed.
In response to point 2:
Castling is always assumed legal in all chess problems conforming to the FIDE Codex. There are no conditions which need to be met.
But isn't there a difference between legality and obligation?
Just because 2. 0-0-0 is legal, why does that mean you have to do it?
If this were my position in a game (as you have said, it's a legal position), my logic would be: "I can castle here, I'm allowed to. Or I can move to d7 and checkmate. I think I'll go with the latter."
Just because I chose not to castle, why does that reverse its legality in the first place? I can't see why it would, hence it doesn't reverse the legality of the en-passant in move 1?