Originally posted by gaurav2711
i dont understand.....why b4 after Kf2. Why not 1.Kf2 Kd5
Edit: For me black wins.
In that case after Kd5 white simply takes the queen
Rxe4+ then Kxe4
All black can do is move the pawn resulting in a draw anyway or move the king to Kd4 then white move to Kc2
If white tries to advance the pawn whilst defending it with the king white can simply put his king on b1 or b2, stopping the pawn and refuting the king's attempt to get the king out of the way.
With accurate play easily a draw.