Originally posted by finnegan
Such compensation shall amount to the fair market value of the investment
There is nothing but the most divine sense of course in sorting out terms on which the owners of a company should be compensated... Now imagine a scenario in which a free trade agreement enables a business to transfer skilled jobs away from a country like the US(say) and ...[text shortened]... fit of corporate profits and not for the benefit of the people in any of the countries involved.
As far as I see there is nothing in the agreement to stop a national government from "trapping" investment - for example, so that set up costs are moderate and exit costs are high - provided they are even handed about it, so that indigenous capital is prevented from doing this as much as foreign capital is.
The ease with which jobs can be moved around is dependent on the new host. The regulations specify which people the new host has to allow in. Skilled US jobs (as per your example) can be moved to Mexico, and Mexico can unilaterally implement the relevant terms of the agreement with the same effect. I didn't see anything in the agreement
preventing the U.S. from insisting on compensation for its workers. This doesn't appear to me to weaken redundancy rules.
My main objection is the secrecy - why are the negotiations secret? Is the leaked draft representative of the current state of agreement? Did they just release something tame to allay our suspicions? The various annexes hadn't been written at the time of the leak and could completely change my assessment.
I'm also a suspicious of why they want an agreement over so many things that the E.U, nations and the U.S.
do anyway. I don't understand the requirement for an international tribunal - if one doesn't trust the legislature of a nation one is investing in it's probably not the best idea to invest there!
My previous post also comes with the caveat that several of the articles do require a specialist legal expert to understand the implications.