Debates
15 Aug 05
Originally posted by Bosse de NageThey would probably have a recount. Then another recount. Then it would go to the courts. Then a governor would probably appoint a winner. Then it would go back to the courts. Something like that.
What would happen if voters were persuaded not to vote at all in, say an American presidential election, yielding zero votes whatsoever?
Originally posted by Bosse de NageSurely the candidate and his/her immediate family would still vote (plus closest supporters), so it would be the one with the most family & friends that would win.
What would happen if voters were persuaded not to vote at all in, say an American presidential election, yielding zero votes whatsoever?
Originally posted by kirksey957In the hypothetical situation that there were no votes to count? (I'm admittedly fantasising--that in an effort to subvert the two-party system, people withheld their votes en masse).
They would probably have a recount. Then another recount. Then it would go to the courts. Then a governor would probably appoint a winner. Then it would go back to the courts. Something like that.
At a guess the courts would have the final say, but how to choose between two candidates for whom no votes have been cast?