5.Be2 in KID

I was wondering why in the Classical KID 1.d4 Nf6 2.c4 g6 3.Nc3 Bg7 4.e4 d6 people play 5.Be2 instead of 5.Nf3. Anyone who can explains this?

Originally posted by badivan1
I was wondering why in the Classical KID 1.d4 Nf6 2.c4 g6 3.Nc3 Bg7 4.e4 d6 people play 5.Be2 instead of 5.Nf3. Anyone who can explains this?

Maybe to avoid ....Bg4 lines?

It doesn't really matter, but there are different lines that have independent significance after either choice. For instance, the averbakh variation has 5. Be2 and 6. Bg5, there are also variations with 5. Be2 and 6. Be3. I am certain there are others.

Originally posted by badivan1
I was wondering why in the Classical KID 1.d4 Nf6 2.c4 g6 3.Nc3 Bg7 4.e4 d6 people play 5.Be2 instead of 5.Nf3. Anyone who can explains this?

Good question. Looking at that board set-up without knowing anything about the theory of the opening, I can make a list of things 5.Be2 accomplishes which 5.Nf3 does not:

(1) The queen and bishop now control the squares g4 and h5, preventing the Black bishop and knight from occupying them.

(2) The White king has additional cover on the e-file.

(3) The f3 square is available for a pawn, and a pawn on f3 may prepare a kingside pawnstorm because it in turn facilitates g4, depending on how Black plays. The queen/bishop battery on the aforementioned diagonal may be relevant here also. Looking at the databases, in some lines White eventually plays Nf3 anyway, but delaying the deployment of the knight may give White more flexibility to consider an early attack.

That's my guess.

Game 4566285

Here's a link to a game I played recently which began as an English and transposed into a KID. After an early f3 I did eventually launch a kingside attack starting with g4, but note that my light-squared bishop languished uselessly most of the game. I have virtually no experience with such attacks and no theoretical knowledge either, and had to wing it. I'm sure this was a case where my error-filled playing (19.g5 comes to mind) only managed to triumph because my opponent was still weaker. He was most obliging by abandoning his own preparations for queenside counterplay and spending several critical moves playing with his bishop in the corner while jockeying his knights around a bit; but I suspect that I STILL managed to muck-up the attack anyway. No doubt stronger players could point out exactly how if inclined to.

Originally posted by badivan1
I was wondering why in the Classical KID 1.d4 Nf6 2.c4 g6 3.Nc3 Bg7 4.e4 d6 people play 5.Be2 instead of 5.Nf3. Anyone who can explains this?

I must admit I've always found this strange too - Knights before Bishops and all that.

I'm not sure the prospect of ... Bg4 is so scary that White needs to avoid it so it must be something else.


Funnily enough it appeared on the board next to mine this evening. Unfortunately the game finished early and the players buggered off so i wasn't able to ask White about his 5th move.

Originally posted by badivan1
I was wondering why in the Classical KID 1.d4 Nf6 2.c4 g6 3.Nc3 Bg7 4.e4 d6 people play 5.Be2 instead of 5.Nf3. Anyone who can explains this?

It keeps Black guessing as to whether White is planning on playing the Averbakh or the classical lines.