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no1marauder
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In a recent OTB game (G/120 with 5-second delay), I reached this position as White. Because I was down to 6 minutes on the clock and my opponent had over 30, I offered a draw which was accepted. I'm curious about other's opinions on this position though.

On the positive side, I'm up a pawn, Black's f and h pawns are isolated and his bishop is certainly "bad". On the negative side, the pawn position on the kingside negates my pawn advantage as my g-pawn is stuck and it seems Black's king can reach good central positions stopping my King from getting to his weak pawns.

What's the verdict? Please avoid reliance on engine evaluations as I think they are useless here.

EDIT: It's Black to move of course; I anticipated Kd6.

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Originally posted by no1marauder
[fen]8/ppk5/6b1/5pNp/5P1P/3K2P1/PP6/8 b - - 0 40[/fen]



In a recent OTB game (G/120 with 5-second delay), I reached this position as White. Because I was down to 6 minutes on the clock and my opponent had over 30, I offered a draw which was accepted. I'm curious about other's opinions on this position though.

On the positi think they are useless here.

EDIT: It's Black to move of course; I anticipated Kd6.
I would call this a draw for sure. I don't see how white should be able to take advantage of the extra pawn as black's king is too well positioned and the "bad" black bishop is a good defender of the weak kingside pawns.

R

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Originally posted by cludi
I would call this a draw for sure. I don't see how white should be able to take advantage of the extra pawn as black's king is too well positioned and the "bad" black bishop is a good defender of the weak kingside pawns.
Are you sure? What if white moved the knight to d4 and the king to c4? Could white possibly advance the queenside pawns successfully? Or perhaps force the black king, in the attempt to deal with that threat, away from being well positioned in the center?

M

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Originally posted by Ramiri15
Are you sure? What if white moved the knight to d4 and the king to c4? Could white possibly advance the queenside pawns successfully? Or perhaps force the black king, in the attempt to deal with that threat, away from being well positioned in the center?
What is this rubbish?

How is white advancing his queenside pawns any kind of threat?! He doesn't have a majority of anything on the queenside why would it be a threat?? Why would black move his king from the center??
Why do you ask questions in your post? Why do you bold your sentences?

no1marauder
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Originally posted by Ramiri15
Are you sure? What if white moved the knight to d4 and the king to c4? Could white possibly advance the queenside pawns successfully? Or perhaps force the black king, in the attempt to deal with that threat, away from being well positioned in the center?
White can't put his King on c4 before he moves his a-pawn or his loses it to Bf7+ if the Knight has moved..

no1marauder
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Originally posted by MoneyMaker7
What is this rubbish?

How is white advancing his queenside pawns any kind of threat?! He doesn't have a majority of anything on the queenside why would it be a threat?? Why would black move his king from the center??
Why do you ask questions in your post? Why do you bold your sentences?
Please keep it civil; I wanted some opinions, not trash talking.

dsR

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Originally posted by no1marauder
[fen]8/ppk5/6b1/5pNp/5P1P/3K2P1/PP6/8 b - - 0 40[/fen]



In a recent OTB game (G/120 with 5-second delay), I reached this position as White. Because I was down to 6 minutes on the clock and my opponent had over 30, I offered a draw which was accepted. I'm curious about other's opinions on this position though.

On the positi ...[text shortened]... think they are useless here.

EDIT: It's Black to move of course; I anticipated Kd6.
I would have played on. You have zero chance of losing and good chances of winning if you get your King behind the queenside pawns.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by der schwarze Ritter
I would have played on. You have zero chance of losing and good chances of winning if you get your King behind the queenside pawns.
There's never a "zero" chance of losing, particulary in an OTB game, unless the opponent has insufficient mating material. One easy way of losing would have been to run out of time, for instance.

At any rate, I'm not asking for a critique of my decision to offer the draw, but for an evaluation of the position itself. What procedure would you suggest for getting the White King behind the Queenside pawns after the Black King rests on Kd6?

R

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Originally posted by MoneyMaker7
What is this rubbish?

How is white advancing his queenside pawns any kind of threat?! He doesn't have a majority of anything on the queenside why would it be a threat?? Why would black move his king from the center??
Why do you ask questions in your post? Why do you bold your sentences?
When I looked at the position it seemed that a plan of advancing the queenside pawns, placing the knight on d4 and advancing the king to c4 would be enough to create a threat of material loss on the queenside so that the black king would have to move to protect those pieces. I formatted my post in questions because a player 500 points above me declared the position "a draw for sure" and I was still unsure about it. I didn't bold my sentences; look and see for yourself.

R

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Originally posted by no1marauder
White can't put his King on c4 before he moves his a-pawn or his loses it to Bf7+ if the Knight has moved..
Bf7+ is not a threat if the a pawn has already advanced or if the white knight is already on d4; sorry if I didn't make that clear in my post.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by Ramiri15
Bf7+ is not a threat if the a pawn has already advanced or if the white knight is already on d4; sorry if I didn't make that clear in my post.
It makes no difference if the White Knight is on d4; Bf7+ still wins the a-pawn IF it rests on a2.

Obviously diverting the Black King to the defense of the Kingside pawns and then somehow winning at least one of the queenside pawns is the most logical way of trying to win. What procedure, if any, has a reasonable chance of succeeding is the question.

R

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Originally posted by no1marauder
It makes no difference if the White Knight is on d4; Bf7+ stills wins the a-pawn IF it rests on a2.
If black chooses to capture the a pawn, white can capture the f5 pawn if his knight is on d4.

no1marauder
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Originally posted by Ramiri15
If black chooses to capture the a pawn, white can capture the f5 pawn if his knight is on d4.
True enough. But the Knight would have to go to d4 before the King went to c4. If the Black King goes to d5, how does the White King get to c4?

w
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Originally posted by no1marauder
Please keep it civil; I wanted some opinions, not trash talking.
how about advancing queenside as a decoy, then saccing the knight for the f-pawn? if white king then managed to penetrate either side...

no1marauder
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Originally posted by wormwood
how about advancing queenside as a decoy, then saccing the knight for the f-pawn? if white king then managed to penetrate either side...
Advancing the queenside pawns is a rather ineffective decoy as there is no way of forcing a passed pawn on that side without winning one of Black's pawn. Saccing the Knight for the f-pawn seems a good way to lose; the White King isn't going to penetrate anywhere with the Black Bishop available for tempo moves - the Black King can always hold the opposition and the passed pawn is too far away from the Queening square.

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