Seemed like there had to be a win

Originally posted by erikido
read this again In between the ++++++++

And remember black would queen with check



nm....it always cuts out the spot I want to quote. Go back to my earlier post-I gave the line and then asked if I was miscalculating something. Almost certain I wasn't now

edit: oh i see

I found the drawing move by you.

45.Bb6? instead you should play 45.Bc3

This is critical for three reasons.

1.you lose a tempo later moving the bishop and those are important in the endgame.

2.c3 is a much better square for the bishop than b6 as it sits on the long diagonal.

3.Look at the position after blacks 50th move. Imagine if your bishop was on e1 instead... Bc3 is one move away from e1.

Again no board. But, seems to me that black has pressure after r-c6 and if b-e1 then there is r-c1 and h4 creating a passed pawn. Again need a board. But, doesn't seem convincing to me

Originally posted by erikido
But, my opponent defended the endgame quite well. Does anyone see a point where I could have won?

It doesn't look easy, but it seems your best chance of winning would have been 51.Bxg3 (taking with bishop instead of pawn). Then you would have both a queenside and kingside promotion threat.

Also, a little earlier, 40.Rb6 would have held promise. If Black avoids the exchange of rooks, the black a-pawn falls, and if Black exchanges rooks, White gets a passer on the b-file that looks even worse for Black.

Originally posted by tomtom232
I found the drawing move by you.

45.Bb6? instead you should play 45.Bc3

This is critical for three reasons.

1.you lose a tempo later moving the bishop and those are important in the endgame.

2.c3 is a much better square for the bishop than b6 as it sits on the long diagonal.

3.Look at the position after blacks 50th move. Imagine if your bishop was on e1 instead... Bc3 is one move away from e1.

You can't just assume same moves would be played if you play a different move.


After I move b-c3 it seems to be losing practically by force after the move r-c6!

for if 46.b-e1(if they don't play this they can't move there pawns and without that black just creates a passed pawn of his own and wins easily), r-c1 47 k-f1, a4 (now there is this deadly threat of a3 rxe1 and b3and I see no way of stopping it)

Originally posted by Mad Rook
It doesn't look easy, but it seems your best chance of winning would have been 51.Bxg3 (taking with bishop instead of pawn). Then you would have both a queenside and kingside promotion threat.

Also, a little earlier, 40.Rb6 would have held promise. If Black avoids the exchange of rooks, the black a-pawn falls, and if Black exchanges rooks, White gets a passer on the b-file that looks even worse for Black.

51. bxg3, k-d5 and black at least holds


on r-b6 the move I missed was 6. b-f2 in this line otherwise black would have been better in the line 1axb6,d5 2. b-d4, b-b8 3. b3, k-f5 4. c4, dxc 5. bxc, k-e4 6.b-f2

Originally posted by erikido
51. bxg3, k-d5 and black at least holds

As you wish, sir.

Originally posted by Mad Rook
As you wish, sir.

thank you- I think

Originally posted by erikido
You can't just assume same moves would be played if you play a different move.


After I move b-c3 it seems to be losing practically by force after the move r-c6!

for if 46.b-e1(if they don't play this they can't move there pawns and without that black just creates a passed pawn of his own and wins easily), r-c1 47 k-f1, a4 (now there is this deadly threat of a3 rxe1 and b3and I see no way of stopping it)

well then 45.b4 first the point is 45.Bb6 was terrible so there.

Originally posted by tomtom232
well then 45.b4 first the point is 45.Bb6 was terrible so there.

b4 and after k-f5 how do you push your pawns further? Either b-c3 or b-b6;D.

Originally posted by erikido
b4 and after k-f5 how do you push your pawns further? Either b-c3 or b-b6;D.

yes but with b4 first then Bc3 doesn't have to worry about ...Rc6

Originally posted by tomtom232
yes but with b4 first then Bc3 doesn't have to worry about ...Rc6

it doesn't? after r-c6 and b-e1 we have the same h3 and g3 motif(with RXB)

What else after r-c6? If you still want to advance the pawn then b-d2 but after r-c2 b has to go to e 1 to protect the pawn

Otherwise if you try b-e3 then k-f3 and I am sure you see what is coming

Originally posted by tomtom232
well then 45.b4 first the point is 45.Bb6 was terrible so there.

actually after all the analysis it seems my b-b6 was the only move to DRAW. So b-b6 was actually a !! Anyways, I am glad I didn't play the winning r-b6 idea because otherwise there wouldn't have been any of this interesting endgame analysis.

Originally posted by erikido
actually after all the analysis it seems my b-b6 was the only move to DRAW. So b-b6 was actually a !! Anyways, I am glad I didn't play the winning r-b6 idea because otherwise there wouldn't have been any of this interesting endgame analysis.

Yep, 45.Bb6 was best; 45.b4 was next best.

It's just too bad that you dismissed 51.Bxg3 so quickly - because it WAS winning for White.

Just testing.

I thought the fen thing was not working in this thread.

It's a bit rude to ask any potentially interested reader to go back
to the first post, play out the game and then follow the threads to see
the postition you lads are talking about.

Adding a diagram with your analysis is so much more polite.

A post in this thread reads:

"it doesn't? after r-c6 and b-e1 we have the same h3 and g3 motif(with RXB)

What else after r-c6? If you still want to advance the pawn then b-d2
but after r-c2 b has to go to e 1 to protect the pawn

Otherwise if you try b-e3 then k-f3 and I am sure you see what is coming."

I'm afraid I don't see what's coming or what has gone on before.

I'll never know if...

"...after r-c2 b has to go to e 1 to protect the pawn."

I might want to let the pawn go rather than tie down my 'b' to the
defence of a mere pawn.