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  1. Standard member buffalobill
    Major Bone
    16 Aug '06 08:15

    White to move. In this game on my database ( black has just played 7. ... f5. In the actual game, white continued with 8. Qd3 but why not 8. Bxf4 which looks to me a simple, yet effective one-two? Yet, he didn't and I can't for the hell of me see why not. Does anyone have a plausible explanation or was it just too simple?

    This is not a game in progress. It is a might-have-been.
  2. Standard member onyx2006
    16 Aug '06 09:03
    I can't see anything wrong with Bxf4... and i can't think of anything else to say... Qd3 isn't exactly the end of the world though...
  3. 16 Aug '06 09:58
    I guess white wanted to avoid the complications after 8.Bxf4 fxe4 with attack on the pinned knight, and attack on the knight on d5. I think he shouldn't have been scared. The continuation could have been something like this (careful this is just one long line with plenty of alternatives, probably better ones for either side): 9.Nxc7+ Kf7 10.Nxa8 Nf6 11.c3 (allowing Qb3+ if necessary) exf3+ 12.gxf3 Re8+ 13.Kd2 Ne4+ 14.Kc1 Nf2 15.Qb3+ Be6 16.Qxb7+ Nd7 17.Nc7 Nxh1 18.Nxe6 Rxe6 19.Bc4 and white should win easily.
  4. 16 Aug '06 10:30
    What a weird and wonderfull game.Not often one sees such an agressive king
  5. 16 Aug '06 10:48
    I think the game is fairly typical of a King's Gambit accepted.

    8.Bxf4 looks good to me too.

    I checked on, and there were two other games with the same first seven moves, and in both of those White played 8.Qd3. So there you go.