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+1-1=1

+1-1=1

Posers and Puzzles

AThousandYoung
1st Dan TKD Kukkiwon

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Why is this not incorrect?

I wish I knew the right way to ask this Poser without giving it away...

c

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if you have 1 infinity and remove 1 infinity, you still have 1 infinity. was it something like that?

p

tinyurl.com/ywohm

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Originally posted by AThousandYoung
Why is this not incorrect?

I wish I knew the right way to ask this Poser without giving it away...
Because it's correct.

a
AGW Hitman

http://xkcd.com/386/

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+1-1=1
this goes to...
+1-1-1=0 when you bring over the 1
thus you're saying that -1=0 not good (the universe implodes or something)

we could also try something crazy and rewrite it as...
+1-(1=1)
same as...
1-1
therefore =0
function stands, though I think it's bad mathematical etiquette to have the brackets on either side of the equals sign, like a split infinitive.

A

Pittsburgh, PA

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Originally posted by agryson
+1-1=1
this goes to...
+1-1-1=0 when you bring over the 1
thus you're saying that -1=0 not good (the universe implodes or something)

we could also try something crazy and rewrite it as...
+1-(1=1)
same as...
1-1
therefore =0
function stands, though I think it's bad mathematical etiquette to have the brackets on either side of the equals sign, like a split infinitive.
in that case it's not a math problem. ()'s cannot start on the left side of = and end on the other.

a
AGW Hitman

http://xkcd.com/386/

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but it may not be a math problem, that's my point, from what I can see, it can only be true if we add things that aren't given (which is too arbitrary a problem) so I don't think it's simply maths.

a
AGW Hitman

http://xkcd.com/386/

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oh, and brackets can be on opposite sides of an = sign, it just prevents it from being an equation on its own. it's a messy way of abbreviating without having to resort to asides.

k

Sigulda, Latvia

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Perhaps that's a result after a chess match. In that case +1-1=1 means that the player, who has this result, won one game, lost one and drew one.

f

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because +1 is the same as 1

D

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Originally posted by AThousandYoung
Why is this not incorrect?
Take the infinite series that starts +1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 etc
Obviously, +1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 ... = +1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 ...

Now apply brackets:
+1 - 1 + (1 - 1) + (1 - 1)... = +1 (- 1 + 1) (- 1 + 1) ...
Each bracket is zero so this leave +1 - 1 = 1

[You can also get to the same result through the more obviously flawed 0 = 1 'argument'. Then, if 0 = 1, it is obvious that +1 - 1 = 1.]

AThousandYoung
1st Dan TKD Kukkiwon

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Originally posted by kbaumen
Perhaps that's a result after a chess match. In that case +1-1=1 means that the player, who has this result, won one game, lost one and drew one.
You got it, bud, or close enough. It's some GM's (I forget who) record against Fischer.

F

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-1 = 1
Proof:
-1 = sqr(-1)^2 = sqr(-1) * sqr(-1) = sqr(-1 * -1) = sqr(1) = 1
Hence -1 = 1

k

Sigulda, Latvia

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Originally posted by FabianFnas
-1 = 1
Proof:
-1 = sqr(-1)^2 = sqr(-1) * sqr(-1) = sqr(-1 * -1) = sqr(1) = 1
Hence -1 = 1
i=-1^(1/2)
-1=1
sqrt(-1)=sqrt(1)
i=1 hence
1 = -1^(1/2)

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