A relativity question got me thinking about this again (I did when I was at college). Basically, the Minkowski spacetime interval formula, which is the basis of Einstein's special theory of relativity postulates, is based on measurements of differences between clocks.

One way thinking about the effect of the Lorentz factor in Einstein's equations is that the very act of measuring, which depends on signal (in some form on EM wave) that limited to travel at 1.0c, disturbs the received data ( if you move a relativistic speeds your measurement signals are either blue or red "shifted" which cause length contraction and time dilation ). But, suppose we can come up with way to creating some sort of quatum entanglement in which a state of a particle can be correlated to its speed, giving us basically an instatenous measurement capabilities. If we then accelerate a particle from such a pair to 0.9999c would we still see the same effects/results as the ones obtained with our "classical" signal measurements?

Originally posted by 3v1l5w1n A relativity question got me thinking about this again (I did when I was at college). Basically, the Minkowski spacetime interval formula, which is the basis of Einstein's special theory of relativity postulates, is based on measurements of differences between clocks.

One way thinking about the effect of the Lorentz factor in Einstein's equations is tha ...[text shortened]... ee the same effects/results as the ones obtained with our "classical" signal measurements?

The only part I see running into trouble is the accellerating part. I think that would be like a measurement, it may disturb the entanglement. If so it would be back to the drawing board.

So your saying that it's only our recieved data that is relativistic and that in reality the particles or masses or whatever are actually acting "classically".

Or that they are indeed moving/acting according to relaticistic principles but we are unable to measure it with this type of entanglement.

The latter i guess you mean but that would imply that a condition of relativism at all is the so called "quantum" principle of uncertainity.

I'm not sure i've wrapped my head around this but sound like a funky idea :p