- 12 Feb '07 12:51 / 2 edits

I don't know much about baseball (and even less about "eeze baseball", whatever that may be), but let's assume that you want the number of hits divided by the number of goes to be 0.440*Originally posted by GinoJ***A player has 12 hits after 40 times a bat. How many additional consecutive times must the player hit the ball to achieve a batting avarage of 0.440?**

Show your solution.

So (12+x)/(40+x) = 0.440

where x is the number of extra goes.

Solving for x gives 10.

Is this what you were after?

[edit: OK - in the time it took me to type this the question was answered!] - 13 Feb '07 05:02

Foul ball, assuming no one touched it while it was in fair territory. Even though the ball hit the mound, which is in fair territory, it bounced into foul ground (the dugout) before passing first or third base. When you say "spins backwards," I assume you mean while in the air. If it spins on the ground behind home plate, it is foul no matter what happens after that.*Originally posted by wittywonka***Here's another baseball question...no math involved...**

If a player hits a ball which spins backwards, then forwards, then hits the pitcher's mound, then bounces into the other team's dugout, what does the umpire call?