Originally posted by skimsIt's to make the following equation work. (x!)/(y!)=(x-y)! This works for all numbers. I'll give an example, let's say x,y=3, then it would be (3!)/(3!)=(3-3)! ---> 6/6=0! 1=1 and the equation holds since 0!=1. But if it equalled zero, like you'd expect, then the equation wouldn't work.
How is 0! equal to 1? Can someone please explain it to me?
Originally posted by nickhawkerActually, my equation doesn't work. It must be some different one. I do know that the factorial of 0 is 1 though. I'll let someone with more experience (and memory ) take over for me in explaining this.
That sounds like a botch job to me. What is the factorial of a negative number?
Originally posted by Suzianneoooh-i wondered why bowmann had dug up that old thread
This is not the first time this subject has been visited in this forum... there was a thread called 0! in this forum posted on Jun 20, 2004. Right now, it's on page 20 of this forum if you care to take a look...
or, let's see if I can copy the url:
ack, tried to make it a link but dunno the bracket code for it