Originally posted by mtthw
I still think that any concept of "converting energy into momentum" is misleading. They are different physical quantities. It's like saying you're converting mass into distance.
In the example you've given, any idea of "converting half the KE to heat" when the mass stops isn't going to work. If you bring it to a stop all the additional KE that you ...[text shortened]... impulse) is exactly the same - all you've done is make it act over a longer timescale.
If it is exactly the same, then aren't you getting free energy somewhere? Say it left with 1000 joules of Ke as it left the solenoid and because we specified the trip would be frictionless, several ways to do that in reality, and at the end it encounters friction that slows it down and the device doing that gets hot. So if the resultant impact which now happens over a longer time than the original acceleration has heated up an object so how can it have the exact same amount of kinetic energy to impart to the inside of the craft?
In an electric car, they can use regenerative braking, where the Ke of the car gets converted to electricity to re-use some of the kinetic energy which turns into electricity by the change of velocity as the car slows down. So why would my example be any different?
For instance, suppose the device that slows the mass down now is a generator that makes a quick pulse of electricity which powers a series of LED's in front and back of the craft. That energy will now shoot off as electromagnetic radiation in both the direction of motion and the reverse, so how could the mass still have the same amount of Ke at the end of its travel?
You haven't gotten something for nothing here, the change in velocity of the mass powered a generator briefly so we have conserved energy, it would all add up and be accounted for.