27 Nov '07 22:52>1 edit
Originally posted by FabianFnasLet's compare with a problem where a castling is involved. Here we have clear rules: If, with a retro-analysis, it shows that a castling is impossible, then castling cannot be a part of the solution.
This discussion is hypothetical only. So there is not a conflict here. If either of us is right and the other is wrong doesn't really change anything. So this discussion is about amusement and amusement only.
Let's compare with a problem where a castling is involved. Here we have clear rules: If, with a retro-analysis, it shows that a castling is impos this. No proofs of any kind is really necessary.
And I find this thread rather amusing.
Well, they seem clear at first, until we see examples like:
W. Langstaff, 1922
White mates in 2
Does this imply that e.p. must be the last move if it can be the last move, or does this imply that e.p. can't be the last move if there is another possibility of move?
It isn't a question of whether e.p. is the last move, but rather whether a two-square pawn advance was the last move.
About the probability: Is it really 50%-50% cabce that one or another of the two possibilites has occurred?
Yes. Your question answers itself.
Why not 30%-70% or any other combination? A pawn move with e.p. possibility is quite a rare occurrens, therefore an e.p. move has very low statistically frequency.
This is irrelevant. We are discussing the probability in this specific position that h2-h4 was the last move played.
But I know this: The stipulation of the problem is "mate in zero moves", therefore it is mate already. Alas: No e.p. move.
Here's the problem with bowing to the composer's authority:
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