Originally posted by ilywrinHey buddy!......... so you do come around here to post too! Well, not that I'm haunting you with this puzzle addiction, but why is it 'obviously' black's move in this case? How did you figure that out?
Since it is obviously black to move. 0...c6 1.b4 Ka3 2.Ra1 #
Originally posted by ckoh1965Because black couldn't have played the last move. His pawn hasn't gone anywhere, and all three spaces that the king could have directly come from would all have resulted in an illegal check. a3 and b3 are ruled out as it cannot have been put in check by an unmoved pawn, at a1 the rook couldn't have given a check by capturing on b1 due to the white king on c1. The king must have made it to a2 via b1, but in order for white to block him in, black needs to move something else. That was captured on either c1 or c5 last move.
Hey buddy!......... so you do come around here to post too! Well, not that I'm haunting you with this puzzle addiction, but why is it 'obviously' black's move in this case? How did you figure that out?
Originally posted by pootstick1) 1...Kxh8?? is illegal - Pg7 guards the Rook.
but... what, say, if the board is uncommonly placed and white is playing 'down'?
black's legal last move would be pawn push and there's still mate in two, white to play.
(1.Rh8+ Kxh8, 2. g8(Q) # )
Originally posted by pootstickHey, if solvers could just change anything they wanted, there'd be no point in having a stipulation, right? Just give 'em a board with some pieces on it and let them find whatever they want to find.
sorry. i'm clearly taking this far too seriously.