Posers and Puzzles
21 Nov 05
Originally posted by royalchickenBut, don't you agree that, naively speaking, it makes sense to say "I have a pain in my foot" whereas it sounds weird to say "I have a pain in my shoe", even though one's shoe is in one's foot. Do you really think that latter *doesn't* sound weird?
Either the pain is occurring inside the shoes (in your foot) and you do have transitivity, or it is actually occurring somewhere (maybe your brain) not in your shoe, in which case it is not in your foot either.
Originally posted by PawnokeyholeYes, it sounds weird. Also, I have the feeling that the verb 'have' does not have (lol) quite the same meaning in both cases.
But, don't you agree that, naively speaking, it makes sense to say "I have a pain in my foot" whereas it sounds weird to say "I have a pain in my shoe", even though one's shoe is in one's foot. Do you really think that latter *doesn't* sound weird?
Originally posted by PawnokeyholeDid I really say "even though one's shoe is in one's foot"?
But, don't you agree that, naively speaking, it makes sense to say "I have a pain in my foot" whereas it sounds weird to say "I have a pain in my shoe", even though one's shoe is in one's foot. Do you really think that latter *doesn't* sound weird?
I am clearly more confused that I thought.