1. Joined
    09 Aug '06
    Moves
    5363
    23 Feb '08 13:16
    Originally posted by doodinthemood
    Proof that Root 2 is irrational:
    Suppose, root 2 is rational. Then it could be written in the form A/B where A and B do not share any factors.
    Root 2 = A/B
    2 = (A/B)^2
    2 = A^2/B^2
    B^2x2 = A^2

    So A^2 is an even number, and A is an even number. It can be written in the form 2C
    2 = (2C)^2/B^2
    2 = 4C^2/B^2
    2B^2 = 4C^2
    B^2 = 2C^2

    So B^2 is a ...[text shortened]... a number. You cannot have anything of radius infinity or volume infinity or anything like that.
    Nice proof.
  2. Joined
    31 May '07
    Moves
    696
    23 Feb '08 16:16
    cheers. I take cheques.
  3. Subscribercoquette
    Already mated
    Omaha, Nebraska, USA
    Joined
    04 Jul '06
    Moves
    1114601
    23 Feb '08 19:58
    Originally posted by coquette
    if you slice a pumpkin in half what do you get?
    Answer: (note the title of this thread) PUMPKIN PI
  4. Joined
    07 Sep '05
    Moves
    35068
    24 Feb '08 01:01
    Originally posted by doodinthemood
    [b]Proof that Root 2 is irrational:
    Suppose, root 2 is rational. Then it could be written in the form A/B where A and B do not share any factors.
    Root 2 = A/B
    2 = (A/B)^2
    2 = A^2/B^2
    B^2x2 = A^2

    So A^2 is an even number, and A is an even number. It can be written in the form 2C
    2 = (2C)^2/B^2
    2 = 4C^2/B^2
    2B^2 = 4C^2
    B^2 = 2C^2

    So B^2 is a ...[text shortened]... umbers, then they share a common factor, of 2. We have a contradiction, and so root 2 is irrational.
    I remember having that as an interview question for University. That's pretty much the answer I gave.
  5. Joined
    02 Mar '06
    Moves
    17881
    24 Feb '08 04:46
    Originally posted by mtthw
    I remember having that as an interview question for University. That's pretty much the answer I gave.
    its one of the classic examples of proof by contradiction... i love this proof, and the other one usually seen that there is no largest prime number
  6. Joined
    31 May '07
    Moves
    696
    24 Feb '08 07:45
    No largest prime number:
    Suppose there is a largest prime number and we have a finite set of them. Then every number is the product of a certain number of primes, or is prime. If we multiply all the primes in that finite set of primes together, we get a number that has every prime as a factor. The next number to have any given prime as a factor would be this number plus whatever amount the prime is. However, as the smallest prime is 2, then adding one to this mass-prime-product will find a number that doesn't have any primes as a factor, so is a prime. This is a contradiction, so there is not a largest prime number.
  7. Standard memberTheMaster37
    Kupikupopo!
    Out of my mind
    Joined
    25 Oct '02
    Moves
    20443
    25 Feb '08 11:56
    All numbers (meaning 0, 1, 2, 3, ...) are interesting:

    Suppose there are numbers that are not interesting.

    Then there is also a smallest uninteresting number.

    That makes that number interesting, wich is a contradiction.

    Our initial assumption must be wrong, so no uninteresting numbers exist.
  8. Backside of desert
    Joined
    09 Nov '06
    Moves
    14828
    25 Feb '08 16:131 edit
    Originally posted by doodinthemood
    2) Infinity is not a number. You cannot have anything of radius infinity or volume infinity or anything like that.[/b]
    Infinity is not a real number. Infinity is a transfinite number.

    Given:
    a = "first ordinal transfinite number" = "number of integers"
    b = "second ordinal transfinite number"
    c = "number of reals"
    r = "any real number greater than 1"

    then:
    a+r = a
    a-r = a
    a*r = a
    a/r = a
    a^r = a
    r^a = b

    so with the circle mentioned in the first post :
    diameter = a
    circumfrence = pi * a = a
    area = pi * a^2 = a
  9. Joined
    31 May '07
    Moves
    696
    25 Feb '08 16:361 edit
    Infinity is not a transfinite number either. The whole point of the words "transfinite" and "infinite" (and indeed "finite" ) is that they are not the same. Infinity can never be the value of anything. As the diameter of a circle tends to infinity, the circumfrence tends to infinity, and the area tends to infinity, but there is no real point in recognising this.
  10. Standard membersmw6869
    Granny
    Parts Unknown
    Joined
    19 Jan '07
    Moves
    73159
    25 Feb '08 18:50
    What the hell is everyone talking about?

    F. GRANNY.
  11. Standard memberChronicLeaky
    Don't Fear Me
    Reaping
    Joined
    28 Feb '07
    Moves
    655
    02 Mar '08 17:19
    Originally posted by Swlabr
    Question one: Does these exist a real number 'a' such that a*Pi is a rational number? (NOTE: a rational number is a number that can be written in the form a/b, with a and b both integers, incase you were wondering...)

    Question two: (my mind wandered onto this whilst contemplating the above question. I'm not too sure of the answer, but I have a hunch...)
    T ...[text shortened]... estion without an answer? I feel it is the latter (really stupid...), but I'm not sure.
    1. Yes, pi*0 = 0, a rational number.
  12. Subscribercoquette
    Already mated
    Omaha, Nebraska, USA
    Joined
    04 Jul '06
    Moves
    1114601
    02 Mar '08 18:56
    Originally posted by smw6869
    What the hell is everyone talking about?

    F. GRANNY.
    pi
Back to Top

Cookies help us deliver our Services. By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. Learn More.I Agree