If you define "superconductivity" as "zero resistance", then, yes, I believe so. If I'm not mistaken a pure, defect-free conductor has zero resistance but won't have the same magnetic properties. But the way "superconductivity" is usually defined, i.e. involving Cooper pairs, I think it implies those magnetic properties.
After looking on Wikipedia, it seems this distinction is usually made and "superconductivity" and "perfect conductivity" are not the same, although they both imply 0 resistance.