Originally posted by josephw
How strange it is to read all of your posts and see that not a one of you understood at all the meaning of what was said.
But it was no surprise.
You see, if you were to compare the two references, you would have noticed a change between what was previously written by Isaiah and then later by Paul.
The point is that at the time when Isaiah wrote th d of focusing on an argument that clouds the issue in a maze of intellectual jargon.
Okay, okay. 😉
The Isaiah passage seems subject to different readings. I give several English translations below:
____________________________
KJV Isaiah 64:4 For since the beginning of the world men have not heard, nor perceived by the ear, neither hath the eye seen, O God, beside thee, what he hath prepared for him that waiteth for him.
NIV Isaiah 64:4 Since ancient times no one has heard, no ear has perceived, no eye has seen any God besides you, who acts on behalf of those who wait for him.
NRS Isaiah 64:4 From ages past no one has heard, no ear has perceived, no eye has seen any God besides you, who works for those who wait for him.
NJB Isaiah 64:3 Never has anyone heard, no ear has heard, no eye has seen any god but you act like this for the sake of those who trust him.
And from two Jewish translations—
JPS Isaiah 64:3 Such things had never been heard or noted. No eye has seen [them], O God, but You, Who act for those who trust in You.
STONE Isaiah 64:3 [People] had never heard, never observed, no eye had ever seen a god—except for You—that acted for those who trust in Him. (This is an Orthodox Jewish translation.)
____________________________________
Apparently the text can be read either way: (1) no one has seen such a God, or (2) only God has seen these things [KJV and JPS].
Given the context, I would lean toward (1). Your distinction depends on (2). Now, did the Israelites see such things as mentioned by Isaiah in verse 2, or verse 3, depending on the numbering (at Sinai, for example)? Did Isaiah not see them?
______________________________________
Further, the Hebrew word
asah means to do, fashion, accomplish, work—not “prepare” as the Greek has it in Paul’s letter, and the KJV puts into Isaiah’s mouth. Nor does Paul quote from the Greek Septuagint here, which also uses the Greek word for “work” to accurately translate
asah. Somebody, it appears, mistranslated.
EDIT: "Prepare" can, of course, be taken in the sense of "to prepare a meal", in which case one does not have to take the NT Greek as meaning anything oriented toward an otherworldy future; and the whole thing could be taken as a rather free rendering.
Nevertheless, the Greek word used in Corinthians does not correspond with that used in the Isaiah verse. It is not a direct quote of either the Hebrew or the Septuagint.