Originally posted by PsychoPawn
]he was not an anti Semite, he was anti Jewish for he had nothing against the Arabs, who are also Semites,[/b]
If you look at the definition of anti-semitism it specifically mentions that "anti-Jewish" specifically is a legit definition so is assertion wasn't baseless at all.
i have never is Hitler's reasons weren't based in reality, just like I don't believe Fisher's were.
dictionary smictionairy, the Arabs are Semites too, deny it we cannot, Fischer had nothing against the Arabs, therefore all that we can say is that he was anti Jewish.
why this is the case i think has to do with the tournaments that he played in and the people who put the money up for the tournaments were pulling the shots and failed to take his requests into consideration, like not playing on a Sunday for example, i think this was the reason he walked out against Reshvesky. He hated the thought that others were making money from him, from his legacy and his reputation, this plus lawsuits concerning publication rights put him at enmity with many who were Jewish, therefore it takes not a great leap of the imagination to see why he was anti Jewish, this coupled with a perhaps misguided understanding from scripture, plus any personal problems, plus the way he was portrayed in the media, which he felt was Jewish controlled, may all have culminated in his distrust and enmity. therefore i don't think that its not without reason, whether the reasons were justified is another story.