Originally posted by thesonofsaul
Good question. I would think not, for you are changing a definition in order for you to create an argument in favor of the subject instead of changing an argument in order to refute it. Personally, I don't think there's much of a difference, but the definition is the definition.
In the end, however, there's not much point in arguing definition, b ...[text shortened]... t, but that could easily be read as an attempt to escape arguments that you feel overwhelmed by.
The definitions you offered are both naturalistic (as opposed to "supernaturalistic" ); I agree with that, because of my monistic viewpoint, even though my offering expanded it somewhat more into the "religious" (though not necessarily theistic) realm.
If the term is taken to mean something supernatural--that the idea of "spiritual" experience is one that transcends the natural order--then I'd have to go along with Bosse I think.
There is also the question of effability/ineffability. If we are talking about, as bbarr has put it, an "experience of the ineffable," then all words are at best suspect--or, as the Buddhists say, no more than fingers pointing at the moon.
What I want to ask Bosse is this:
Is your argument that any talk about a conscious experience-of/correspondence-with the (ineffable) ground of being is a meaningless notion in the modern world (regardless of what it's called)? Or is it just that any such experiences need to be "demythologized" by eliminating the meaningless and superstitious designation of "spiritual?"
BTW, I want to follow thesonofsaul in commending Bosse for taking on the brunt of this argument. If nothing else, I think it will help to to clear up my own thinking on the subject.