1. Standard memberRJHinds
    The Near Genius
    Fort Gordon
    Joined
    24 Jan '11
    Moves
    13644
    27 Oct '14 04:24
    Originally posted by Suzianne
    Remember, there is no Temple, either.

    If the 'throne of David' is, as I said, the kingship of Israel, then it's true that no one sits on this throne even today, and certainly no descendant of Jehoiakim ever sat on it, meaning no descendant of Jehoiakim was ever king of Israel. It certainly does not mean that "the throne of David", or the kingship of Isr ...[text shortened]... known.

    This is just one example of how literalists always miss the actual point of scripture.
    What is the meaning of this:
    "For thus says the LORD, 'David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel; and the Levitical priests shall never lack a man before Me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to prepare sacrifices continually.'"

    (Jeremiah 33:17-18 NASB)
  2. Standard memberwolfgang59
    Quiz Master
    RHP Arms
    Joined
    09 Jun '07
    Moves
    48793
    27 Oct '14 08:52
    Originally posted by RJHinds
    What is the meaning of this:
    "For thus says the LORD, 'David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel; and the Levitical priests shall never lack a man before Me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to prepare sacrifices continually.'"

    (Jeremiah 33:17-18 NASB)
    What is the meaning of this?

    1. Ezekiel 23:19
    [i]Yet she increased her prostitution, remembering the days of her
    youth when she engaged in prostitution in the land of Egypt. She
    lusted after their genitals – as large as those of donkeys, and their
    seminal emission was as strong as that of stallions.[i]
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