Originally posted by Suzianne Remember, there is no Temple, either.
If the 'throne of David' is, as I said, the kingship of Israel, then it's true that no one sits on this throne even today, and certainly no descendant of Jehoiakim ever sat on it, meaning no descendant of Jehoiakim was ever king of Israel. It certainly does not mean that "the throne of David", or the kingship of Isr ...[text shortened]... known.
This is just one example of how literalists always miss the actual point of scripture.
What is the meaning of this:
"For thus says the LORD, 'David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel; and the Levitical priests shall never lack a man before Me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to prepare sacrifices continually.'"
Originally posted by RJHinds What is the meaning of this:
"For thus says the LORD, 'David shall never lack a man to sit on the throne of the house of Israel; and the Levitical priests shall never lack a man before Me to offer burnt offerings, to burn grain offerings and to prepare sacrifices continually.'"
(Jeremiah 33:17-18 NASB)
What is the meaning of this?
1. Ezekiel 23:19
[i]Yet she increased her prostitution, remembering the days of her
youth when she engaged in prostitution in the land of Egypt. She
lusted after their genitals – as large as those of donkeys, and their
seminal emission was as strong as that of stallions.[i]