1. Joined
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    23 Apr '09 19:08
    There is no Hebrew or Greek word used in the Bible that is precisely defined to refer to sex before marriage. The Bible undeniably condemns adultery and sexual immorality, but the question arises, is sex before marriage considered sexually immoral? According to 1 Corinthians 7:2, “yes” is the clear answer, “But since there is so much immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman her own husband.” In this verse, Paul states that marriage is the “cure” for sexual immorality. First Corinthians 7:2 is essentially saying because people cannot control themselves and so many people are having immoral sex outside of marriage, people should get married, so they can fulfill their passions in a moral way.
  2. Joined
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    27 Apr '09 08:42
    Originally posted by MrMartin
    There is no Hebrew or Greek word used in the Bible that is precisely defined to refer to sex before marriage. The Bible undeniably condemns adultery and sexual immorality, but the question arises, is sex before marriage considered sexually immoral? According to 1 Corinthians 7:2, “yes” is the clear answer, “But since there is so much immorality, each man sh ...[text shortened]... tside of marriage, people should get married, so they can fulfill their passions in a moral way.
    Your post here, with all the scripture you have quoted, would seem to have answered your question already, so I wonder what motivates you to ask it, unless you are planning to launch into a beginners class on Christian morals. To ask such a question, on the pretext of seeking an answer, when you already know full well what you deem the answer to be, whispers one word to me: Hypocrasy.
  3. England
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    27 Apr '09 09:16
    by bible do you mean god??, as early kings of isreal had many concubines, but adultry was frowned on. new testerment says one for one until death. fornification is frowned on in all forms.
    But as for god ,[and he must have seen it all by now} sadly we venture into many forms of sin one sin does not have priority, the 10 commandments are for all the others to hang on.
  4. Standard membertelerion
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    27 Apr '09 11:553 edits
    Originally posted by stoker
    by bible do you mean god??, as early kings of isreal had many concubines, but adultry was frowned on. new testerment says one for one until death. fornification is frowned on in all forms.
    But as for god ,[and he must have seen it all by now} sadly we venture into many forms of sin one sin does not have priority, the 10 commandments are for all the others to hang on.
    Not only concubines but wives as well.

    But then that was the Old Law . . . Jesus came later and fulfilled the Law . . . now having concubines and multiple wives is bad . . . on the other hand shrimp and pigs are now good . . . it's kind of a fair trade off . . . make sense?
  5. SubscriberAThousandYoung
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    27 Apr '09 18:06
    Originally posted by telerion
    Not only concubines but wives as well.

    But then that was the Old Law . . . Jesus came later and fulfilled the Law . . . now having concubines and multiple wives is bad . . . on the other hand shrimp and pigs are now good . . . it's kind of a fair trade off . . . make sense?
    Oysters replace "oysters"...
  6. Standard membertelerion
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    28 Apr '09 03:51
    Yikes. 🙂
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    28 Apr '09 14:561 edit
    Ignoring pologomy for now... there was no such thing as "sex before marriage" in the old testament times. When two people had sex, they were considered married. Where the Old Testament reads: "and john took sarah as his wife..." it could also read: "john and sarah had sex and were considered married...". The actual wedding ceremony is a relatively new occurrence.

    This makes things rather interesting and puts a totally new spin on the topic. If the sexual act is the binding act between two people, i.e. makes you one with the other person as the Bible says: one as in permanently, then one has to think twice before crossing the threshold.... reserving it for that one special life parter makes so much more sense (for me, anyway...)

    My 2 cents on a very controversial topic. I know many (most) will disagree with me on this view..., but that's okay.
  8. Joined
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    28 Apr '09 16:14
    Originally posted by Wumpus
    Ignoring pologomy for now... there was no such thing as "sex before marriage" in the old testament times. When two people had sex, they were considered married. Where the Old Testament reads: "and john took sarah as his wife..." it could also read: "john and sarah had sex and were considered married...". The actual wedding ceremony is a relatively new occurrence.
    Reference?
  9. England
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    30 Apr '09 10:021 edit
    Originally posted by Wumpus
    [b]Ignoring pologomy for now... there was no such thing as "sex before marriage" in the old testament times. When two people had sex, they were considered married. Where the Old Testament reads: "and john took sarah as his wife..." it could also read: "john and sarah had sex and were considered married...". The actual wedding ceremony is a relatively new occurrence.
    well did jesus attend a wedding [water to wine] so how new relatively are you saying?? or was the "had sex", watched by friends and family??
    ...in the old T which john took sarah.
  10. Standard memberHand of Hecate
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    30 Apr '09 17:11
    Originally posted by MrMartin
    There is no Hebrew or Greek word used in the Bible that is precisely defined to refer to sex before marriage. The Bible undeniably condemns adultery and sexual immorality, but the question arises, is sex before marriage considered sexually immoral? According to 1 Corinthians 7:2, “yes” is the clear answer, “But since there is so much immorality, each man sh ...[text shortened]... tside of marriage, people should get married, so they can fulfill their passions in a moral way.
    Is post marital anal sex a sin?
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