Originally posted by Metal Brain I had never heard of this before and I am curious why it is happening. It does seem very unusual. Is the judge justified in approving this?
The article doesn't mention whether it would be required that he freely give consent (of course free consent might not he legally assumable even if consent is given). Is this known?
Originally posted by JS357 The article doesn't mention whether it would be required that he freely give consent (of course free consent might not he legally assumable even if consent is given). Is this known?
The implication that it violates his 5th amendment rights implies there is no consent.
Log In to Red Hot Pawn Chess
Cookies help us deliver our Services. By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. Learn More.I Agree