Originally posted by Merk
I believe the difference would be the open declarations of war and the actions being those of an organized state.
And those differences are morally important how? Regarding A many terrorist organizations have published documents which contained "open declarations of war" against somebody or some state; does this reduce the moral blameworthiness of their subsequent terrorist acts? Regarding B is the fact that the Holocaust was the work of an "organized state" a factor that reduces its moral blameworthiness?
