Suppose something happened that required Joe Biden to become the new president. Then imagine that Biden ran for present, and got elected.
Would Biden then be allowed to run a second time for president? Because technically, he's only been elected once. Would the fact that Biden served two terms legally prevent him from doing so, even though one of those wasn't a full term?
Originally posted by vivify Suppose something happened that required Joe Biden to become the new president. Then imagine that Biden ran for present, and got elected.
Would Biden then be allowed to run a second time for president? Because technically, he's only been elected once. Or would that fact that Biden served two terms legally prevent him from doing so, even though one of those wasn't a full term?
Yes, a person who has served less than half of one term can serve an additional two terms. If he had served more than 2 years, he would only be eligible for one more term.
Edit: That's why LBJ was eligible to run in 1968 (he didn't run, though). He became President on November 22, 1963 and was re-elected in 1964. Because he served less than half of Kennedy's term, he was eligible to be elected again in 1968.
Originally posted by vivify Actually, one more question:
Can a person be VP under more than one president? Could Biden be the VP for whoever wins the election?
I don't see why not. There's no term limitation on Vice Presidents in the Constitution.
I've heard people ask whether a person who has already served 2 terms (e.g., Obama) could become VP. I would think the answer should be no, but I don't know of any authority for that.
Actually, now I see that the Twelfth Amendment provides that anyone constitutionally ineligible to the office of President is ineligible to that of Vice President.
Though, since the 26th Amendment was passed much later, I don't know that a 2 term president would necessarily be considered "constitutionally ineligible" for purposes of the 12th Amendment. But I still would feel pretty safe answering the question with a "probably not."
Originally posted by sh76 Actually, now I see that the Twelfth Amendment provides that anyone constitutionally ineligible to the office of President is ineligible to that of Vice President.
Though, since the 26th Amendment was passed much later, I don't know that a 2 term president would necessarily be considered "constitutionally ineligible" for purposes of the 12th Amendment. But I still would feel pretty safe answering the question with a "probably not."
The 26th Amendment is part of the Constitution and thus someone who has already completed two terms as President is "constitutionally ineligible" under the terms of the 12th Amendment.
Originally posted by FishHead111 Being VP is like being retired, they don't really do too much. I think they gotta judge a beauty contest once a year or something.
John Nance Garner, one of FDR's VPs, has been quoted as saying that the Vice Presidency "is not worth a bucket of warm spit" though he probably actually compared it to a different bodily fluid. http://www.cah.utexas.edu/news/press_release.php?press=press_bucket
Question about VPs and reelection
06 Mar '16 18:371 edit
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