05 Jan 15
Originally posted by redbadgerSo basically they'd follow anyone with a fiver to spare?
Scotland only became part of the UK because it was bankrupt.FACT
How about an answer to the OP's question? (Not from you, I don't expect any answers from you. I'm throwing it out there for anyone who knows the answer.)
I wasn't aware that the number of games for unsubs had increased. Is this only for Christmas or is it going to stay?
05 Jan 15
Originally posted by SuzianneJames the 1st of England = James the 2nd of Scotland came cap in hand to England because Scotland was skint.
So basically they'd follow anyone with a fiver to spare?
How about an answer to the OP's question? (Not from you, I don't expect any answers from you. I'm throwing it out there for anyone who knows the answer.)
I wasn't aware that the number of games for unsubs had increased. Is this only for Christmas or is it going to stay?
05 Jan 15
2 edits
Originally posted by redbadgerBadger behave yerself!
James the 1st of England = James the 2nd of Scotland came cap in hand to England because Scotland was skint.
He was actually James the sixth of Scotland and he came because you had no one else of Royal decent and it was actually you who were skint!
As Elizabeth I was the last of Henry VIII's descendants, James was seen as the most likely heir to the English throne through his great-grandmother Margaret Tudor, who was Henry VIII's oldest sister.
The kingdom to which James succeeded was, however, not without its problems. Monopolies and taxation had engendered a widespread sense of grievance, and the costs of war in Ireland had become a heavy burden on the government. By the time of his succession, England had incurred a debt of £400,000.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_VI_and_I
Reading an interesting book on Thomas Cromwell at the moment. Henry VIII was not a very likeable character although he had a novel way of getting rid of wives that did not bear him any sons, or simply annoyed him.
05 Jan 15
2 edits
Originally posted by robbie carrobie
Badger behave yerself!
He was actually James the sixth of Scotland and he came because you had no one else of Royal decent and it was actually you who were skint!
As Elizabeth I was the last of Henry VIII's descendants, James was seen as the most likely heir to the English throne through his great-grandmother Margaret Tudor, who was Henry VIII' ...[text shortened]... e had a novel way of getting rid of wives that did not bear him any sons, or simply annoyed him.
The Darien Scheme was an unsuccessful attempt by the Kingdom of Scotland to become a world trading nation by establishing a colony called "Caledonia" on the Isthmus of Panama on the Gulf of Darién in the late 1690s.
[...]
As the Darien company was backed by 25–50% of all the money circulating in Scotland; its failure left the entire Lowlands almost completely ruined, and was an important factor in weakening their resistance to the Act of Union (completed in 1707). The land where the Darien colony was built is virtually uninhabited today.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Darien_scheme
Of course, redbadger isn't capable of grasping the difference between "an important factor" and the only factor, or that the crowns of England and Scotland were unified over a century before the 1707 Act of Union.
On second thoughts, perhaps he did grasp the second point, as he specifically referred to Scotland becoming part of the UK.
06 Jan 15
Originally posted by NoEarthlyReasonI think he is perfectly capable, he simply has an excellent method of synthesising matters in a concise and direct way.
[quote]The Darien Scheme was an unsuccessful attempt by the Kingdom of Scotland to become a world trading nation by establishing a colony called "Caledonia" on the Isthmus of Panama on the Gulf of Darién in the late 1690s.
[...]
As the Darien company was backed by 25–50% of all the money circulating in Scotland; its failure left the entire Lowland ...[text shortened]... he did grasp the second point, as he specifically referred to Scotland becoming part of the UK.
