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OK so for my philosophy class, I'm supposed to briefly describe Plato's paradox of one over many. I missed class on Monday, which was apparently when the professor went over this topic. google and wikipedia aren't much help. Can anyone here give me a hand and explain it using lingua a freshman in college (myself) would understand?

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So, now Mr-know-it-all, is begging for help.

ROFLMAO....You crack me up!

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Originally posted by Big Orange Country
OK so for my philosophy class, I'm supposed to briefly describe Plato's paradox of one over many. I missed class on Monday, which was apparently when the professor went over this topic. google and wikipedia aren't much help. Can anyone here give me a hand and explain it using lingua a freshman in college (myself) would understand?
Plato was gay, he didn't smoke bud, drink, or eat pizza, and that's pretty gay too.

Or do I need to dumb it down? I'd hate for you to get a Phd. with my stuff. 😕

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Originally posted by Very Rusty
So, now Mr-know-it-all, is begging for help.

ROFLMAO....You crack me up!
ignor'd

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Originally posted by Big Orange Country
OK so for my philosophy class, I'm supposed to briefly describe Plato's paradox of one over many. I missed class on Monday, which was apparently when the professor went over this topic. google and wikipedia aren't much help. Can anyone here give me a hand and explain it using lingua a freshman in college (myself) would understand?
AFAIK, Plato's one-over-many is not really a paradox. Can you post the exact whole question?

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http://faculty.washington.edu/smcohen/320/1ovrmany.htm

http://www.google.com/cse?cx=002683415331144861350%3Atsq8didf9x0&q=plato+%22one+over+many%22&ie=utf-8&sa=Search

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Originally posted by Palynka
AFAIK, Plato's one-over-many is not really a paradox. Can you post the exact whole question?
lol that was the question. the TA sends out the questions each week, and in this one the entire e-mail consisted of "Describe the paradox of One Over Many". After a little bit of research it became obvious that One Over Many was Plato's, although Aristotle altered it later.

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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_Forms

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Originally posted by Big Orange Country
lol that was the question. the TA sends out the questions each week, and in this one the entire e-mail consisted of "Describe the paradox of One Over Many". After a little bit of research it became obvious that One Over Many was Plato's, although Aristotle altered it later.
Just describe the argument and tell him it's an argument, not a paradox.

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Originally posted by zeeblebot
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Theory_of_Forms
that first link you posted was very helpful, thanks!

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Originally posted by Palynka
Just describe the argument and tell him it's an argument, not a paradox.
Tell him Paly on RHP told you. 😛

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Originally posted by Very Rusty
Tell him Paly on RHP told you. 😛
To Palynka: Thanks.
The Rusty: ignor'd, again.

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Originally posted by Big Orange Country
To Palynka: Thanks.
The Rusty: ignor'd, again.
I don't think I was much help this time...

BTW, when you're looking for quick, but precise philosophical stuff this is where I look first:
http://plato.stanford.edu

Just remember that the point is to learn, not copy. 🙂

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Originally posted by Palynka
I don't think I was much help this time...

BTW, when you're looking for quick, but precise philosophical stuff this is where I look first:
http://plato.stanford.edu

Just remember that the point is to learn, not copy. 🙂
i know, i have to make my own description of the paradox/argument, not simply copy a definition. i don't copy (unless it's really really really funny material)

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Originally posted by Palynka
I don't think I was much help this time...

BTW, when you're looking for quick, but precise philosophical stuff this is where I look first:
http://plato.stanford.edu

Just remember that the point is to learn, not copy. 🙂
He doesn't want help, he wants someone to do it for him, he is LAZY.