04 Feb 10
OK so for my philosophy class, I'm supposed to briefly describe Plato's paradox of one over many. I missed class on Monday, which was apparently when the professor went over this topic. google and wikipedia aren't much help. Can anyone here give me a hand and explain it using lingua a freshman in college (myself) would understand?
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by Big Orange CountryPlato was gay, he didn't smoke bud, drink, or eat pizza, and that's pretty gay too.
OK so for my philosophy class, I'm supposed to briefly describe Plato's paradox of one over many. I missed class on Monday, which was apparently when the professor went over this topic. google and wikipedia aren't much help. Can anyone here give me a hand and explain it using lingua a freshman in college (myself) would understand?
Or do I need to dumb it down? I'd hate for you to get a Phd. with my stuff. 😕
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by Big Orange CountryAFAIK, Plato's one-over-many is not really a paradox. Can you post the exact whole question?
OK so for my philosophy class, I'm supposed to briefly describe Plato's paradox of one over many. I missed class on Monday, which was apparently when the professor went over this topic. google and wikipedia aren't much help. Can anyone here give me a hand and explain it using lingua a freshman in college (myself) would understand?
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by Palynkalol that was the question. the TA sends out the questions each week, and in this one the entire e-mail consisted of "Describe the paradox of One Over Many". After a little bit of research it became obvious that One Over Many was Plato's, although Aristotle altered it later.
AFAIK, Plato's one-over-many is not really a paradox. Can you post the exact whole question?
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by Big Orange CountryJust describe the argument and tell him it's an argument, not a paradox.
lol that was the question. the TA sends out the questions each week, and in this one the entire e-mail consisted of "Describe the paradox of One Over Many". After a little bit of research it became obvious that One Over Many was Plato's, although Aristotle altered it later.
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by Big Orange CountryI don't think I was much help this time...
To Palynka: Thanks.
The Rusty: ignor'd, again.
BTW, when you're looking for quick, but precise philosophical stuff this is where I look first:
http://plato.stanford.edu
Just remember that the point is to learn, not copy. 🙂
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by Palynkai know, i have to make my own description of the paradox/argument, not simply copy a definition. i don't copy (unless it's really really really funny material)
I don't think I was much help this time...
BTW, when you're looking for quick, but precise philosophical stuff this is where I look first:
http://plato.stanford.edu
Just remember that the point is to learn, not copy. 🙂
04 Feb 10
Originally posted by PalynkaHe doesn't want help, he wants someone to do it for him, he is LAZY.
I don't think I was much help this time...
BTW, when you're looking for quick, but precise philosophical stuff this is where I look first:
http://plato.stanford.edu
Just remember that the point is to learn, not copy. 🙂