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Prearranged draws

Prearranged draws

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A month ago, there was a tournament I was playing in. I was in the U1200 section. It was a 5 round tournament. I found myself tied for first with 4.0 points after 4 rounds. There were 2 4.0's (including myself) and a bunch of 3.0's. The prize worked like this. 1st place $350 2nd place $225. If two people are tied for first then they add up the 1st and second prize money and divide it by 2. So in this case, I calculated that the winner of my game would get 350, and the loser would get 50 (because he would have to split the money with the other players). The entry fee was 79.

My opponent and I agreed to a draw before hand, therefore barring anyone else from winning prize money. We both went home with $288.

Is this a morally wrong thing to do?

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Yes.

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Wouldn't say it's great morally, but definitely standard practice for many years.

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Originally posted by chesskid001


Is this a morally wrong thing to do?
Only if you thought you were better than about a 70% favorite to win.

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No, perfectly legit. After all you could have done yourself out of first prize.

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Originally posted by chesskid001
A month ago, there was a tournament I was playing in. I was in the U1200 section. It was a 5 round tournament. I found myself tied for first with 4.0 points after 4 rounds. There were 2 4.0's (including myself) and a bunch of 3.0's. The prize worked like this. 1st place $350 2nd place $225. If two people are tied for first then they add up the 1st and se ...[text shortened]... rom winning prize money. We both went home with $288.

Is this a morally wrong thing to do?
Why care? You got the money, didn't you?

2 edits
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Originally posted by chesskid001
A month ago, there was a tournament I was playing in. I was in the U1200 section. It was a 5 round tournament. I found myself tied for first with 4.0 points after 4 rounds. There were 2 4.0's (including myself) and a bunch of 3.0's. The prize worked like this. 1st place $350 2nd place $225. If two people are tied for first then they add up the 1st and se ...[text shortened]... rom winning prize money. We both went home with $288.

Is this a morally wrong thing to do?
You'll make a wonderful GM.

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depends.....if your goal was good chess you failed, if is was cash you succeeded in grand fashion

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Originally posted by Bedlam
You'll make a wonderful GM.
He was playing in the U1200 section!

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Originally posted by Freddie2006
He was playing in the U1200 section!
I did read his post 🙂

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Originally posted by Bedlam
I did read his post 🙂
I think Freddie's sarcasmometer is broken.

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Originally posted by DoctorScribbles
Only if you thought you were better than about a 70% favorite to win.
He was rated almost exactly the same, so draw would be a likely out come (of course with u1200 players one may can almost count on a piece blunder)

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Ja.

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Originally posted by chesskid001
He was rated almost exactly the same, so draw would be a likely out come (of course with u1200 players one may can almost count on a piece blunder)
Bah, develop some killer instinct. One of these days you're going to be in a final and thinking about offering a prearanged draw and the other player is just going to giggle at you, then start to play for the win. Offering a draw at the start has to give them a psychological advantage. If I had to face two people in a final and I knew one would try to offer a prearanged draw (which id reject) and I knew the other would go in all guns blazing it wouldnt be a hard choice as to which player id pick to go against.

How did you draw, just play 1.e4 then stick your hand out?

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No actually I told him what would happen if we got a draw. He agreed but someone told me the TD said 15 moves had to be played before we a draw could be agreed upon. So, both of us just did Knight out and Knight back 3 times and it was a draw by repetition. The TD couldn't argue with that, so he gave us the money