Originally posted by @eladar
[b]The process is explainable and plausible without divine intervention. Does this prove that divine intervention did not occur. No. But divine intervention is not required. Apply Occham's Razor.
Truth is not based on what is required. You are not required to believe anything. Truth is not based on what anyone believes.
All that should be expected is a proper distinction between what one can directly work with and what one believes.[/b]
Interesting point. Now apply it to yourself.
You cannot know whether anything in the Bible is true because you weren't there when those alleged events allegedly occurred. They are buried in the past and you cannot directly know anything in the past, as you yourself have repeatedly claimed.
You cannot know whether anything in the Bible is true because you weren't there when the scrolls which made up the Bible were written. So you cannot know whether the various authors told the truth, the whole truth, and nothing but the truth. You cannot know what the authors left out and what they exaggerated and what they simply made up because they didn't know either. You cannot know whether the various authors were themselves direct witnesses or were merely repeating hearsay.
You cannot know whether anything in the Bible is true because you weren't there at the Council of Nicea when the Catholic bishops decided which scrolls to canonize and which scrolls to discount.
You cannot know whether anything in the Bible is true because you weren't there when it was redacted (and it was redacted many times). So you can't know what was cut out of previous editions and what was added later and what was changed.
You cannot know whether anything in the Bible is true because you weren't there when it was translated from Aramaic or Hebrew into Greek into Latin and then into English. So you can't know whether all the words there now have their proper original meanings in the modern vocabulary.
I will give you one example: the rendering of Mary's status as a "virgin" is a mistranslation. The original Hebrew word for her status was "almah", which correctly translated meant "unmarried maiden". In Hebrew, this word meant her legal and civil status, not her physiological status, not the status of her hymen. This Hebrew word was mistranslated into Greek as "parthenos" from which we derive the modern word "parthenogenesis" or asexual reproduction. The original Hebrew text meant that Mary was not yet given in marriage,
not that she had never had sex. Quite obviously she had had sex, just not with Josef. So the whole myth of Mary being a virgin is bunk. Jesus was conceived the same as everyone ever was: a human sperm fertilized Mary's ovum. 2,000 years of bunk dogma because of a single stupid mistranslation.
All of the above applies double to the Book of Genesis: no one was there when the universe was created on those first five days. No one had direct knowledge of how life began (whether by creation or by abiogenesis).
If reasoning from present effects is no basis for knowledge of the past, as you apparently believe, then you have no knowledge of how your great-grand-parents came to be. Maybe God created them by a miracle, too, eh?
What you believe about knowledge and truth and how they are attained and verified is untenable. Ludicrously untenable.