Originally posted by amolv06Think about the Physics of what's happening. If it isn't obvious again I can handwave you an explanation.
Sorry for asking so many questions related to class - I know most people probably don't find these interesting. That said, this is a difficult subject to understand, and I have gotten some good answers here so far.
My question is this: say when x < 0 we have a free particle. At x=0 the particle enters a constant potential field. When x<0 the wavefunction ...[text shortened]... ation for this. Perhaps this should be obvious, but it is not to me. Could anyone explain this?
Originally posted by mtthwRight on!
Which means, I think, that not only must the wave-function be continuous at 0, but so must its first derivative.