Originally posted by Halitose
Logically, yes. But I contend that process (2) through (4) doesn't allow for speciation beyond a kind, which I guess would be comparible to the biological classification of an order.
You still do not understand how the truth of an implication is evaluated. If its antecedent is false - which you seem to think is the case - then the implication itself is true. Do you follow, and do you accept that (7) is true?
The only way you can hold that (7) is false is if you actually believe that man
did result from some process that used (2) through (4), and that man's emergence
does not entail intelligent design. I don't think you believe both of these things, and thus I think you must believe that (7) is true.
Additonally, (7) follows directly from (6). You can't rationally believe (6) and not (7).
Think it over. I'll be back in an hour. We're quite near the end. There should be only two or three steps left, and you need not fear the conclusion. I promise you this: it won't be anything at all like "Therefore, man evolved from a lower species." In fact, I expect you will be quite comfortable and pleased with it.
Dr. S
P.S. If you're really hung up on (7) but you still accept (6), I'll withdraw (7) from consideration. It's really not a necessary premise of my argument.