24 Feb '14 04:35>
Could someone please explain to me the reasoning that concludes that our universe may be beginning-less and end-less, with respect to time?
I have read about this theory before, and I have had conversations with friends about it, too. In those conversations, I have in some form always asked the question, "How could it be that if in nearly every facet of our lives we observe, understand, perceive things as temporally, causally related, why wouldn't we apply that paradigm to our understanding of the existence of our own physical existence?" To which I was met with a swift retort of, "Well just because we can't fathom the concept, or just because we're not familiar with it, doesn't mean it isn't so." To which I stopped talking altogether.
I'm not trying to be small-minded, or shallow. But I genuinely don't understand on what basis I should even consider rejecting a fundamental physical premise of our (universal) existence.
I have read about this theory before, and I have had conversations with friends about it, too. In those conversations, I have in some form always asked the question, "How could it be that if in nearly every facet of our lives we observe, understand, perceive things as temporally, causally related, why wouldn't we apply that paradigm to our understanding of the existence of our own physical existence?" To which I was met with a swift retort of, "Well just because we can't fathom the concept, or just because we're not familiar with it, doesn't mean it isn't so." To which I stopped talking altogether.
I'm not trying to be small-minded, or shallow. But I genuinely don't understand on what basis I should even consider rejecting a fundamental physical premise of our (universal) existence.