1. Joined
    26 Feb '09
    Moves
    1637
    02 Mar '17 21:40
    Originally posted by josephw
    Good post leunammi.

    I would go a step further though and say the KJV is without error.
    All the bibles have errors, one type or another. For the most part, they are not malicious in nature. There are a few, a handful purposely altered. For example, there were a group of Methodist who neutered God. Any reference to God as "Father" or "He" was removed. If i recall, some 4,000 words were altered in that case.

    But in all bibles there are hazards in the translations. The Old Testament, some of it was in Ancient Hebrew. And in that, some of it is hard to translate. Like the word that was used when God speaks to Moses. Most translations have "I am who am". In truth, there is no English translation that can handle it. In English we don't have a singular plural noun. The literal translation would be, "I's am whom am"

    In the New Testament there is a lot of trouble with the Greek translations. In Greek there is no differentiation between brothers and cousins. And this is where one of the biggest confrontations between Catholics and Protestants is. Did Jesus have brothers or not.

    What amazes me the most is, after all these years, and all the struggle in translating. The Dead Sea Scrolls. How closely they are the same.
  2. R
    Standard memberRemoved
    Joined
    03 Jan '13
    Moves
    13080
    02 Mar '17 22:08
    Originally posted by wolfgang59
    mmm

    I think you will first have to prove that you understand Logic.
    I understand logic pretty well.

    I know how to include rather than exclude God in my reasoning process.
    That is probably the difference.

    Now, since logic is your strong suite could you explain to all of us how REASON can be used to prove that REASON can arrive at truth.

    Do it without using circularity please.
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