13 Jun '08 08:48>
did the cathlics change some of the ten commandments to siut their own purposes or am i missled?
Originally posted by josephwI believe that there are texts that are older than the Catholic Church. That is all that is required.
There are no "original" texts. There are only copies of copies of the original autographs. The trick is knowing which copies are reliable.
Originally posted by secret squirrelNo; the Catholic Church only divides the commandments differently. For example, Catholic have the first commandment as "You shall have no other gods before me; you shall not make for yourself a false idol." Protestant translations tend to split this commandment into two. The Catholic Catechism is fully candid about this:
ill consult my good friend and get more facts then post again,i think it was something like dropping the forth and halving the tenth into two.
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesIn the Catholic Church, adultery constitutes any violation of the baptismal promise of chastity. That includes fornication, and hence, molestation of children. For a full enumeration of the offenses against chastity, here is a list:
It wouldn't surprise me. You'd think God would have commanded against molesting children, but I don't see any such command among the modern Ten.
Originally posted by Conrau KDo you think it is empirically true that "the moral sense of the faithful [has] been in no doubt and [has] firmly maintained that masturbation is an intrinsically and gravely disordered action"?
In the Catholic Church, adultery constitutes any violation of the baptismal promise of chastity. That includes fornication, and hence, molestation of children. For a full enumeration of the offenses against chastity, here is a list:
2351 Lust is disordered desire for or inordinate enjoyment of sexual pleasure. Sexual pleasure is morally disordered when ation of the children entrusted to them.
http://www.va/archive/catechism/p3s2.htm[/b]
Originally posted by DoctorScribblesI doubt that it is empirically testable. You would need identify an historical moment in which the majority of Christian faithful had approved of masturbation.
Do you think it is empirically true that "the moral sense of the faithful [has] been in no doubt and [has] firmly maintained that masturbation is an intrinsically and gravely disordered action"?