03 Oct '07 21:31>4 edits
Knightmeister made a good point in the thing of beauty thread a while back.
http://www.playtheimmortalgame.com/board/showthread.php?threadid=76271
I was arguing that Jesus encouraged endocannibalism - that he literally wanted his followers to ritualistically drink his blood and eat his flesh in John 6:53+.
http://www.thebricktestament.com/the_gospels/the_flesh_and_blood_of_jesus/jn06_59p48.html
Endocannibalism is a widespread phenomenon in ancient societies, and cannibalism is referred to quite a lot in the Bible:
http://www.answers.com/topic/cannibalism
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Endocannibalism
http://skepticsannotatedbible.com/says_about/cannibalism.html
EinsteinMind responded that "NOT ALL OF THE BIBLE IS EXACTLY LITERAL!!!! John 2:19"
However in John 2:20-21 Jesus gives an explicit disclaimer making it very clear that he was not being literal. If he gives such a disclaimer here, then one would think he'd do it elsewhere when he was not being literal. Thus I felt my position was bolstered, not weakened by this challenge.
Knightmeister then offered up John 15 (or rather he paraphrased it - I guess he didn't know how to find that part of the Bible so he could give me a scriptural "address" ). Now, in John 15, Jesus says he's a vine. Well, that makes zero sense if taken literally, but there's no disclaimer from Jesus like there is in John 2.
So, all this leads me to the question -
When do I take Jesus literally, and when don't I? I'm asking as a person investigating a long dead historic figure. If it requires the Magic Decoder Holy Spirit to show one the "correct" interpretation, then I'm not interested. I want an argument based on analysis of the text of the Bible, or analysis supported by other sources.
Of course I don't own this forum, so you can say what you want. However I'm asking out of sincere interest and would like to hear from people with solid logical perspectives grounded in natural evidence (as opposed to supernatural "evidence" ).
http://www.playtheimmortalgame.com/board/showthread.php?threadid=76271
I was arguing that Jesus encouraged endocannibalism - that he literally wanted his followers to ritualistically drink his blood and eat his flesh in John 6:53+.
http://www.thebricktestament.com/the_gospels/the_flesh_and_blood_of_jesus/jn06_59p48.html
Endocannibalism is a widespread phenomenon in ancient societies, and cannibalism is referred to quite a lot in the Bible:
http://www.answers.com/topic/cannibalism
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Endocannibalism
http://skepticsannotatedbible.com/says_about/cannibalism.html
EinsteinMind responded that "NOT ALL OF THE BIBLE IS EXACTLY LITERAL!!!! John 2:19"
However in John 2:20-21 Jesus gives an explicit disclaimer making it very clear that he was not being literal. If he gives such a disclaimer here, then one would think he'd do it elsewhere when he was not being literal. Thus I felt my position was bolstered, not weakened by this challenge.
Knightmeister then offered up John 15 (or rather he paraphrased it - I guess he didn't know how to find that part of the Bible so he could give me a scriptural "address" ). Now, in John 15, Jesus says he's a vine. Well, that makes zero sense if taken literally, but there's no disclaimer from Jesus like there is in John 2.
So, all this leads me to the question -
When do I take Jesus literally, and when don't I? I'm asking as a person investigating a long dead historic figure. If it requires the Magic Decoder Holy Spirit to show one the "correct" interpretation, then I'm not interested. I want an argument based on analysis of the text of the Bible, or analysis supported by other sources.
Of course I don't own this forum, so you can say what you want. However I'm asking out of sincere interest and would like to hear from people with solid logical perspectives grounded in natural evidence (as opposed to supernatural "evidence" ).