14 Apr '05 03:14>
Pardon my ignorance, but where in the NT does it say that Christian's can ignore God's commandments in the OT?
Henry
Henry
Originally posted by MaustrauserIt doesn't. It does speak about the end of ceremonial laws and sacrifices. Clearly sacrifices are no longer called for - as Christ is the perfect sacrifice. And ceremonial laws we also a "shadow of the things to come" - meaning they were a shadow of the real thing - Christ and the results of his work. But other laws - the moral laws - still apply and should not be ignored. Christians should are still called to obey the 10 commandments at the very least.
Pardon my ignorance, but where in the NT does it say that Christian's can ignore God's commandments in the OT?
Henry
Originally posted by OmnislashToo kind...
Why do you ask? I am certain you are a capable reader.
Originally posted by MaustrauserThere's a difference between the Commandments and the laws
Too kind...
I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.
I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists d ...[text shortened]... erribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
Originally posted by MaustrauserI see........
Too kind...
I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.
I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists d ...[text shortened]... erribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
Originally posted by MaustrauserMathew 7:12 Therefore all things
Thank you - that was quite helpful. Jesus does draw a difference between the Mosaic laws and 'his laws'. But I wonder whether from this specific question (one of divorce), one can say that all Mosaic laws are now 'old hat'?
Originally posted by MaustrauserMaustr.: "From a historical viewpoint I understand that the OT was nearly impossible for the Jews to follow without sinning and therefore a new set of laws was required for the Church to survive."
Too kind...
I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.
I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists d ...[text shortened]... erribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
Originally posted by frogstompFrogstomp: " ... any help?"
Mathew 7:12 Therefore all things
whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets.
also Mathew 12
John1:17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
any help?
Originally posted by ivanhoeYes indeed. The Church (in its broadest administrative sense) is a pragmantic beast.🙂
Maustr.: "From a historical viewpoint I understand that the OT was nearly impossible for the Jews to follow without sinning and therefore a new set of laws was required for the Church to survive."
Is that what they call pragmatism ? 😉