1. Standard memberMaustrauser
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    14 Apr '05 03:14
    Pardon my ignorance, but where in the NT does it say that Christian's can ignore God's commandments in the OT?

    Henry
  2. Standard memberColetti
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    14 Apr '05 03:22
    Originally posted by Maustrauser
    Pardon my ignorance, but where in the NT does it say that Christian's can ignore God's commandments in the OT?

    Henry
    It doesn't. It does speak about the end of ceremonial laws and sacrifices. Clearly sacrifices are no longer called for - as Christ is the perfect sacrifice. And ceremonial laws we also a "shadow of the things to come" - meaning they were a shadow of the real thing - Christ and the results of his work. But other laws - the moral laws - still apply and should not be ignored. Christians should are still called to obey the 10 commandments at the very least.

    But I'm sure you have some more specific questions - I would.
  3. Standard memberOmnislash
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    14 Apr '05 03:261 edit
    Originally posted by Maustrauser
    Pardon my ignorance, but where in the NT does it say that Christian's can ignore God's commandments in the OT?

    Henry
    Why do you ask? I am certain you are a capable reader.
  4. Standard memberMaustrauser
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    14 Apr '05 03:36
    Originally posted by Omnislash
    Why do you ask? I am certain you are a capable reader.
    Too kind...

    I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.

    I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists don't follow all the laws in Leviticus and Deuteronomy.

    From a historical viewpoint I understand that the OT was nearly impossible for the Jews to follow without sinning and therefore a new set of laws was required for the Church to survive. But I still want the Biblical reference saying that the OT laws can be ignored... And if there isn't one then surely fundamentalists are being terribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
  5. Standard memberfrogstomp
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    14 Apr '05 03:57
    Originally posted by Maustrauser
    Too kind...

    I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.

    I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists d ...[text shortened]... erribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
    There's a difference between the Commandments and the laws

    read chapter 10 of Mark and see if that's what you seek
  6. Standard memberMaustrauser
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    14 Apr '05 04:06
    Thank you - that was quite helpful. Jesus does draw a difference between the Mosaic laws and 'his laws'. But I wonder whether from this specific question (one of divorce), one can say that all Mosaic laws are now 'old hat'?
  7. Standard memberOmnislash
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    14 Apr '05 04:09
    Originally posted by Maustrauser
    Too kind...

    I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.

    I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists d ...[text shortened]... erribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
    I see........

    I highly suspect you already know what I would say about this matter, and your query is intended for the "fundies" specifically. As such, I shall leave it to them to answer you. 😉

  8. Standard memberfrogstomp
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    14 Apr '05 09:50
    Originally posted by Maustrauser
    Thank you - that was quite helpful. Jesus does draw a difference between the Mosaic laws and 'his laws'. But I wonder whether from this specific question (one of divorce), one can say that all Mosaic laws are now 'old hat'?
    Mathew 7:12 Therefore all things
    whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets.

    also Mathew 12

    John1:17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

    any help?

  9. Standard membergenius
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    14 Apr '05 09:55
    the mosaic laws for set down for the jewish people, and the start of Acts deals with whether non-jewish people should follow these laws. the aposols ended up setting down 3 or 4 rules for non-jews, the only one of which i can remeber is not be be "sexually immoral". it's in acts 3, i think...
  10. Felicific Forest
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    14 Apr '05 14:48
    Originally posted by Maustrauser
    Too kind...

    I ask because I have not been able to find any reference in the NT saying that the OT commandments are no longer valid.

    I ask, because fundies like Darfius and dj2becker et al, seem to hold that all of God's commandments are equally valid, whether in the OT or the NT and yet tell me that I am just picky when I ask why fundamentalists d ...[text shortened]... erribly hypocritical by not following the OT laws as well as they attempt to follow the NT laws?
    Maustr.: "From a historical viewpoint I understand that the OT was nearly impossible for the Jews to follow without sinning and therefore a new set of laws was required for the Church to survive."

    Is that what they call pragmatism ? 😉
  11. Felicific Forest
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    14 Apr '05 14:501 edit
    Originally posted by frogstomp
    Mathew 7:12 Therefore all things
    whatsoever ye would that men should do to you, do ye even so to them: for this is the law and the prophets.

    also Mathew 12

    John1:17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

    any help?

    Frogstomp: " ... any help?"


    😀 😉
  12. Standard memberMaustrauser
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    16 Apr '05 04:00
    Originally posted by ivanhoe
    Maustr.: "From a historical viewpoint I understand that the OT was nearly impossible for the Jews to follow without sinning and therefore a new set of laws was required for the Church to survive."

    Is that what they call pragmatism ? 😉
    Yes indeed. The Church (in its broadest administrative sense) is a pragmantic beast.🙂
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