Originally posted by RBHILL
Go read 1 John 1:9
1 John 1:9 "If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us [our] sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness."
Your own verse contradicts your sentiments. Did you not notice the phrase 'cleanse us from all unrighteousness'? Clearly, if someone is not cleansed from all unrighteousness (and demonstrates this by, say, raping and killing in accordance with Halitose's example), then he has never properly pented and repented. How, then, can he be 'saved'?
Let be more clear:
1. Your own verse states that upon properly confessing one's sins, God (being infinitely faithful and just) will causally influence the person's moral fiber, freeing one from all unrighteousness.
2. X demonstrates at least some measure of unrighteousness.
3. It follows from 1 and 2 that X has not properly confessed his sins in accordance with scriptural requirement.
4. Properly confessing one's sins is a necessary condition for one's being saved.
5. From 3 and 4, it follows that X is not saved.
So your own verse seems to suggest than anyone demonstrating unrighteousness is not saved.