Originally posted by FabianFnas
If we define a square as a polyeder where all corners is 90 degrees, then we come to the surprising result:
Yes, there are square triangles!
Draw a triangle with corners at (1) North pole, (2) at the point where Greenwich meridian crosses the equator, and (3) the point of the equater 90 degrees east of point 2.
This triangle is a polyeder having al ...[text shortened]... ees.
Assuming the definition of a square, above, is correct, then there are square triangles.
Okay, okay...! 🙂
But that is not the point of Agerg’s question, whether or not you can challenge the particular example he used.
Let’s take an example from logic (modus ponens):
(1) If
p, then
q;
(2)
p;
(3) therefore,
q.
Can an omnipotent god create a situation in which (1) and (2) are given, but (3) does not hold?
If one makes such a claim, then how can s/he proceed to make any reasonable arguments about the nature—or even the existence—of such a god?
Just for a simplistic example, let’s plug omnipotence itself into the inference:
(1) If there is a god, then god is omnipotent;
(2) there is a god;
(3) therefore...god is omnipotent.
Well, if the theist makes such an argument, then they have to admit the validity of modus ponens, even as applied to god; if they claim that an omnipotent god is not subject to modus ponens, then they have to allow for (3) “therefore, god is...
not omnipotent”!!!
And the fact is that a whole lot of argument that goes on here (between theists and nontheists, as well as between theists and other theists) is of that very nature. And, as long as that is the case, Agerg is perfectly correct in attempting to challenge those theists who claim that God is somehow “beyond” logic.
And, despite your challenge to his particular example here, I think you agree...