14 May '15 09:32>
How can anyone be a bible literalist when faced with the following reality? Taken from:
http://m.ancient-hebrew.org/basics.html
It doesn't make any sense unless you propely understand ancient hebrew language structure, culture and way of thinking. But the translations are always from the cultural perspective of the translator, and reflects the translator's belief about the meaning of the text, rather than necessarily the original intention behind it, right?
I thought this might be an interesting point for bible literalists to consider, if they haven't already. And if they have, I'd be interested in knowing how they tackle it.
http://m.ancient-hebrew.org/basics.html
When the reader of the translation comes across the translator's attempts at translating the difficult text, the reader almost always makes the assumption the translator has accurately translated the text. The following passage will give an example of some of the difficulties the translators face when attempting to convert the Hebrew text into an understandable English rendering.
Make a roof for the ark, and finish it to a cubit above; and set the door of the ark in its side; make it with lower, second, and third decks. (Genesis 6:16 - RSV)
The above translation seems very clear, concise and understandable. The reader would have no problem understanding the meaning of the text and assumes this translation adequately represents the original text. Behind this translation lies the Hebrew, which must be a translator's nightmare. Below is a literal rendering of the same verse according to the Hebrew.
“A light you do to an ark and to a cubit you complete it from to over it and a door of the ark in its side you put unders twenty and thirty you do.”
This is not an isolated case, but occurs continually throughout the Biblical texts.
It doesn't make any sense unless you propely understand ancient hebrew language structure, culture and way of thinking. But the translations are always from the cultural perspective of the translator, and reflects the translator's belief about the meaning of the text, rather than necessarily the original intention behind it, right?
I thought this might be an interesting point for bible literalists to consider, if they haven't already. And if they have, I'd be interested in knowing how they tackle it.