Originally posted by Maustrauser Why does one have to write in CAPS?
The Bible is a collection of stories put together by numerous authors and committees over many years. You also need to define "Bible". There is no one Bible. There are many depending on what Christian or Jewish sect you belong to. [This is a slight problem for those claiming that it is the divine word of God - ...[text shortened]... inspired all Sects to believe in the one Bible).
See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Bible
GOD wishes that no man be lost. So HE has allowed there to be many translations for all level of understanding. But with each translation the reader is bound by what they understand. The GOD OF GODS is a GOD for all men regardless of their level of undestanding. In all translations testify to the life and death, and the return to life of JESUS CHRIST.
Originally posted by eagles54 My confusion stems from your assertion that "What matters is what words have been given to us from God."
Aren't the words of Jesus equivalent to the words of God?
I'm trying to learn here, I'm not trying to stir it up unnecessarily.
Yes they are.
What I mean is it does not really matter if we have an exact transcript of the words Christ spoke 2000 years ago, as long as the words written in the Gospels convey the truth of God/Christ. If Jesus spoke words 2000 years ago that were not written down latter, or if the words attributed to Christ are not exactly the words spoken - it does not change the fact that the words written were directed by God to the authors of the Bible and convey the knowledge God intended.
The text of Scripture conveys the same meaning as the words spoken by Christ even if the individual words or sentence are not an exact transcription. There are many ways to convey the same meaning - using different words.
The words written in the Bible itself are the propositional truths of God.
Originally posted by aardvarkhome A career in politics awaits you...genius level post
It's a a statement of logic. In a logical argument, Any relevant term or statement must mean the same thing in the same way at the same time, no matter where it occurs in the argument.
I was trying to be correct in my answer - and went into overkill I guess.
Originally posted by Maustrauser Why does one have to write in CAPS?
The Bible is a collection of stories put together by numerous authors and committees over many years. You also need to define "Bible". There is no one Bible. There are many depending on what Christian or Jewish sect you belong to. [This is a slight problem for those claiming that it is the divine word of God - ...[text shortened]... inspired all Sects to believe in the one Bible).
See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/The_Bible
They write in caps for the same reason ministers raise their voice levels in sermons, and thats to prevent the snoring from drowning out their humdrum blather
Originally posted by Coletti No. What matters is what words have been given to us from God. Many things were spoken by Jesus and not written down in Scripture. But the Word of God and the Scriptures and Jesus are inseparable. To know and believe one, is to know and believe the other.
John 21:25 But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.
Originally posted by RBHILL John 21:25 But there are also many other things which Jesus did; were every one of them to be written, I suppose that the world itself could not contain the books that would be written.
Thanks RB. I knew the verse but couldn't recall where.
This is also a good example of hyperbole in scripture - where the truth conveyed is clear - Jesus said a lot of things that was not written down - but conveyed by an exaggeration - that the world could not contain the books if written. We can understand the literal truth of the statement without saying it's a literally true statement.
Originally posted by DoctorScribbles Do you claim to fully understand the Bible?
If you don't, then how you can you assert that its contents are propositional truths?
Or is this another instance of "they are true because they say they are"?
Understanding a statement has no bearing on the truth value of the statement.
Originally posted by Coletti It's a a statement of logic. In a logical argument, Any relevant term or statement must mean the same thing in the same way at the same time, no matter where it occurs in the argument.
I was trying to be correct in my answer - and went into overkill I guess.
It is a statement of the patently bleeding obvious.
However, given that its (the bible) a very big book and is a mass of contradiction then your statement gives everyone a get out clause....
"yes, that may be in the text but its less important than some other bit"
Originally posted by aardvarkhome It is a statement of the patently bleeding obvious.
However, given that its (the bible) a very big book and is a mass of contradiction then your statement gives everyone a get out clause....
"yes, that may be in the text but its less important than some other bit"
Pfft
I did not say any part was false. But the story of Lot is not important for doctrine - the relative value of any part is a function of its purpose. The book of Job is not as important for understand Gods law as Deuteronomy or Christ summary of the Law of Love.
Originally posted by DoctorScribbles But it does have bearing on one's ability to make or verify a claim about its truth value.
And understanding all of a list of propositions has no bearing on the truth values of the propositions - in part or in whole. I do not need to understand all of the bible to assert they are propositional truths - it has no logical bearing on the assertion. Total understanding of all the Bible is irrelevant to the assertion I made.
THE WORD OF GOD
14 Apr '05 23:45
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