Originally posted by robbie carrobie
There is no basis Jaywill other than an attempt to impose your exegesis upon the scripture to state that it was made relative to Johns stage of transition, no basis whatsoever. It is pure and utter speculation for there is not any Biblical evidence that John was at a greater or lesser stage of transition. Clearly he was not in the Kingdom of the he ...[text shortened]... spawned Agers and Boobster, pure materialists with a contemptible prejudice against scripture.
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There is no basis Jaywill other than an attempt to impose your exegesis upon the scripture to state that it was made relative to Johns stage of transition, no basis whatsoever.
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It is hard for you to level the charge of imposing my exegesis upon others when you are doing so yourself.
Jesus said he that is least in the kingdom of the heavens is greater then John the Baptist, as great as he was.
If you have an alternative interpretation of this tell me.
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It is pure and utter speculation for there is not any Biblical evidence that John was at a greater or lesser stage of transition.
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It is not hard to regard John in a stage of transition. Christ had not yet accomplished redemption on the cross or resurrected from the dead.
Don't you regard this as Christ coming, yet, something not yet having been consummated by Him ?
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Clearly he was not in the Kingdom of the heavens, although fit to baptise Jesus.
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I did not say John the Baptist WAS in the kingdom of the heavens. Did I? I affirmed exactly what Jesus said. That is that the one who was least in the kingdom of the heavens was greater then John.
The contrast should mean that John was not in the kingdom of the heavens. Incidently, both John and Jesus said the kingdom was at hand, as if approaching, on its way. But the kingdom of God was already present. The change of the terms is uncanny.
Compare:
"Now in those days John the Baptist appeared, preaching in the wilderness of Judea and saying, Repent, for the kingdom of the heavens has drawn near." (Matt. 3:3)
So the kingdom of the heavens has only drawn near. It has not arrived yet as John the Baptist is preaching. Jesus repeats the same thing -
"From that tme Jesus began to proclaim and to say, Repent, for the kingdom of the heavens has drawn near." (Matt. 4:17)
So by that time of both John the Baptist's preaching and Jesus' preaching the kingdom of the heavens had only drawn near. But look at
Matthew 21:43:
"Therefore the kingdom of God [KINGDOM OF GOD] sja;; be taken from you and shall be given to a nations producing its fruit."
So the kingdom of the heavens had oonly drawn near. But the kingdom of God will be taken away. This means that it was there, Right?
When the kingdom of God was taken away from Israel and given to another nation is when the New Testament church came into being. And it comes into being. So Matthew's term
"the kingdom of the heavens" has to do with the new testament church life. But the kingdom of God refers to God's general authority and rule which was already there even with the nation of Israel.
Now I don't mind you objecting with observations as challenges. But respect that I did say I was not elaborating on this distinction too much at the time.
At any rate, you saying that the "default" position is to should disregard any such transition is just as much an imposition of your exegesis onto others.
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This is in no way connected to your attempts to introduce the idea of being born again, its a simple Biblical statement which has a bearing on what the Kingdom of God/heavens is.
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Without the new birth, Jesus said, no one can see the kingdom of God. So it is wrong of you to trivialize the new birth.
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I do not avoid the Lords teaching, we will come to what it means to be born again, in fact, i am looking forward to it, but at this moment there are lots of passages that have a direct bearing on what the Kingdom of God actually is.
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I agree that there are many many passages on the kingdom of God and the kingdom of the heavens and the kingdom in general.
That does not mean the words of the Lord Jesus specifically in John chapter 3 we can afford to minimize. Nicodemus was a good and upstanding religious man. The Jehovah's Witnesses and Christianity would have been proud to have him as a member. He was a
"Victor of the People" as the name
Nicodemus means.
But Jesus told him that he needed to be born again. Nicodemus came to Jesus for better teaching. Or at least he came for a clarification of doctrine. Jesus, however, immediately told him that his need was not a new teaching but a new birth.
And it is the same today. It is not better teaching that the condemned sinner needs. First off he needs to be
born again so he can even see the kingdom of God. He needs the new birth so he can enter into the kingdom of God. Good teaching will not do it. A
birth of Christ within him is mandatory -
" ... you MUST be born again."
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Please can we leave off attacking Jehovah's Witnesses, i am into the Bible, i want to discuss scripture, what can i say, its my thing, it rocks my socks, etc etc
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Jehovah's Witnesses can keep people back from being saved in spite of the fact that they talk much about the kingdom. So I feel compelled to warn some people that they could be kept from the kingdom of God.
Especially, by teaching that Jesus Christ the Son of God is the angel Michael rather than the Word of God Who is God and became flesh, they deceive people. They may have many Nicodemuses teaching and going from door to doorr. But they need to be born of the Spirit - born again.
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I live in Glasgow, West of Scotland, United Kingdom, Gods own country! Its not me you should be concerned with, its the English, probably one of the most atheistic and godforsaken people on the planet, next to the Germans and the Swedes! Look how they spawned Agers and Boobster, pure materialists with a contemptible prejudice against scripture.
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Atheism is on the fierce rise in Europe. That is true. The way for the Antichrist is being prepared IMO.
But Christ is God come in the flesh. Jesus loves you. And if you have not been born again you
must be born again.